HankD I think we are going around in circles.
It is hard for a Preterist and a futurist to discuss these things. If you were a-mill it would be easier, at least we would have the same starting point. The Olivet Discourse is the key to all Eschatology discussions. You see it as future, I see it as past. But here goes:
The Kingdom is a spiritual Kingdom not physical.
Luke:
20Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The kingdom of God does not come with your careful observation, 21nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the kingdom of God is within[1] you."
Yet why do we always try to apply physical things to it?
1 Corinthians 15
21For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man.
Death came through Adam. What kind of death? Physical?
Genesis 2
16 And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat:
17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.
Adam did not die physically that day, but did die spiritually. Therefore if Christ is to restore what we lost in Adam, won't it also be spiritual?
the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man.
Why do we want a physical resurrection?
1Cor.15:50 I declare to you, brothers, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable.
So when will/did it happen?
51 Listen, I tell you a mystery: We will not all sleep, but we will all be changed-- 52in a flash, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet. For the trumpet will sound, the dead will be raised imperishable, and we will be changed.
We agree I assume it happens at the Last Trumpet. So when was the Last Trumpet?
Here are a couple of articles dealing with the when:
Matthew 24:29-31
Jesus predicted the destruction of Jerusalem in classic Jewish apocalyptic language. In vss 30-31 he said "they will see the Son of Man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. And he will send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they will gather together His elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other." Jesus is speaking of judgment, the trump of God and the gathering of God's elect from the four corners of the world. Would any Jew even half way conversant with the Old Covenant fail to think of Isaiah's prediction of the sounding of the great trumpet when he heard Jesus' words? We think not.
When did Jesus say that great trumpet was to blow and gather the elect? Read verse 34 "Truly I say to your this generation will not pass away until all things take place."
(As a correlative study, consult a concordance on the "shout" of God.)
I Corinthians 15:51-52
Paul spoke of the resurrection "in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet: for the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised incorruptible..." vs. 52.
Paul says "the trumpet." He was obviously alluding to some known teaching about "the trumpet." Were he introducing a new concept about the sounding of a trumpet would he not have to delineate between the teaching already known and the new teaching he was introducing? Reader, what was the previous teaching about the sounding of "the trumpet" for the gathering of the dead? It is Matthew 24 and Isaiah 27:13! Now if it be admitted the trumpet of Matthew 24 cannot refer to the end of time and creation, and yet it is insisted I Corinthians 15:52 does refer to such, it must be clearly shown why the trumpet of Corinthians is not the same as that in Matthew when Paul simply refers to "the trumpet" and the only sounding of the trumpet mentioned in the New Testament before Corinthians is Matthew 24. One must explain why Matthew is apocalyptic and spiritual yet Corinthians is literal/audible; even though I Corinthians is patently drawing upon earlier teaching about "the trumpet."
The apostle also said it was "the last trumpet." There would be no more trumpets sounded. One is almost forced to think of Revelation and the sounding of the 7 trumpets. More on that momentarily.
Observe that Paul emphatically tells us the resurrection at the sounding of the last trumpet would be the fulfillment of the prediction found in Isaiah 25:8; the very context of the sounding of the great trumpet of God for the gathering of the elect from their "graves" separated from God. Paul says the resurrection of which he speaks was when the strength of sin, i.e. "the law;" the law he called the ministration of death and a covering over the people, [cf Is. 25:7], II Cor. 3; the law that condemned and cursed, Gal. 3:10-13; the law of bondage, Gal. 4:22ff, was destroyed.
When did Paul say the last trumpet was to sound? In verse 51 he says "we shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed." This is nothing less than a positive assertion that "This generation shall not pass till all these things be fulfilled."
In I Corinthians 15 we find then the idea of Christ's coming, judgment, the sounding of the trumpet and the gathering of the elect, i.e. the resurrection; and his assertion it would be in that generation.
I Thessalonians 4:15-17
In this text Paul teaches of Christ's coming, the resurrection and the sounding of the trumpet: "For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the sound of the trumpet; and the dead in Christ shall rise first" vs. 16.
Once again Paul is speaking of "the trumpet." It was well known to the church because it had been taught before. We ask again, where would the Thessalonicans have heard or known of "the trumpet?" From Isaiah 27 and Matthew 24:31.
And when did Paul affirm the trumpet would sound? Hear him "we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord:" vs. 15; "we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with him in the clouds..." vs. 17. Twice Paul avers the sounding of the trumpet at the resurrection and parousia before that generation passed!
Once again we see a pattern of consistency: the subject is the coming of the Lord, judgment, the sounding of the trumpet, the gathering of the elect, and a time statement of imminence.
Revelation 8-11
John saw seven angels having seven trumpets. Beginning with chapter 8 those angels sounded their trumpets. In chapter 10 John was told "in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished as he hath declared to his servants the prophets." The seventh trumpet, the last trumpet, was the time for the final fulfilling of the Old Covenant prophetic word.
What was to happen when the last trumpet sounded? In chapter 11:15ff we are told "And the nations were angry, and thy wrath is come, and the time of the dead, that they should be judged, and that thou shouldest give reward unto thy servants the prophets, and to the saints..." vs. 18. The sounding of the last trumpet was the time for the resurrection of the dead, for judgment.
When was all this to happen? Repeatedly John was told his vision "must shortly come to pass" 1:1-3; and "the time is at hand," cf. chapter 22:6,10,12,20. In chapter 6 the martyrs who had suffered for their faith were assured they would only have to wait "for a little while" before being vindicated, 6:9ff.
An Objection
Many insist the passages above simply cannot speak of the same time and event. One argument offered is that in I Corinthians and I Thessalonians 4 the time statements are simply "accommodative language" or Paul was using the "editorial we" when he said "we shall not all sleep." This is an attempt to obviate the chronological significance of these statements. But it will not work.
First, ask yourself: had Paul wanted to indicate some of the Corinthians would live until the resurrection would not the present wording of I Corinthians 15:51 sufficiently indicate it? Indeed.
Second, it is the burden of those who insist the language is editorial and not temporal to prove their point. You cannot glibly wave a hand and dismiss language without strong reason.
Third, consider the traditional interpretation. It says "we shall not all sleep" means "not all Christians will die" before the resurrection; or "there will be Christians still living" when the resurrection occurs. Now, really, does this make sense? Was it Paul's purpose to assert the endurance of the church? When one compares this language with Jesus' promise that some living then would not die until they had seen him coming with the angels to judge every man it is apparent I Corinthians 15: 52 is not editorial or accommodative language; it is very personal and temporally significant.
The same may be said of Thessalonians 4:15,17. Paul says "we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord." He did not say "those who are alive" as if to posit the coming in the distant future removed from himself. He did not positively assert the survival of specific individuals to the parousia; but he definitely asserts his generation as doing so! Again, he did not say "those who are alive when Christ comes" he said "we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord." Who is Paul's "we?"
It is interesting to wonder where the normal argument made by amillennialists about pronouns and words of proximity goes when this passage is considered. In Matthew 24 it is vehemently argued one must observe Jesus' use of the personal pronouns; when he uses "you" he is referring to the disciples and their generation. When he uses "they" or "them" he is referring to the far distant future. In John 14-16 it is argued by non-charismatics that you absolutely must observe the usage of "you" as applying to the apostles receiving the Holy Spirit; and not just everyone. When in I Corinthians 2 Paul says "we have received... the Spirit which is from God" it is insisted this is speaking of a select group, certainly contemporary. But strangely, when Paul says "We who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord" it is insisted he suddenly abandoned his contemporary usage and went abstract. We are convinced "a priori" convictions about the nature of the resurrection and eschatology as a whole have forced a denial of otherwise plain language.
Paul says "we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord." Question: from what point do we consider the "remaining?" Paul said "we who remain until the coming." The word "remain" must be given its proper consideration from Paul's perspective.
A word here about the usage of the "royal we," or "editorial we." Those who appeal to this do not properly understand the term. The "royal we" was used by monarchs "to refer to themselves in the plural, at least in public" The "editorial we" is "used indefinitely in general statements in which the speaker or writer includes those whom he addresses, his contemporaries, his fellow — fellow-countrymen, or the like." (All emphasis mine.) The point is, the usage of an "editorial we" does not exclude, rather it INCLUDES the contemporaries of the speaker. To avoid the chronological significance of the passages above by an appeal to Paul's supposed use of the "editorial we" or "accommodative language" is therefore a futile attempt.
Incredibly, some are now denying an imminence factor in Revelation. Instead, they insist what Jesus meant by his promise "Behold, I come quickly!" was "When he comes he will not come in slow motion." Such arguments are ludicrous.
Was Jesus promising to come in relief of the oppressed, suffering so terribly at the hands of the persecutors, and saying "Now, I may not come to help you for several thousand years. But boy, when I finally come I will not come in slow motion?" Were the saints to be comforted by how soon Jesus was coming in judgment, or how fast he was going to travel? We think the answer is obvious to any thinking person.
http://www.eschatology.org/articles/secondcoming/trumpet.htm
Harvest is at the End of the Age
by Don K. Preston
We are constantly told that the resurrection, the time of the harvest at the end of the age, is still future. Yet, Jesus was the first-fruits of the resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:23). When would harvest, the resurrection, occur? It seems not to have occurred to most people that if Jesus was the first-fruit, that the time of the harvest, i.e. the time of the resurrection, was definitely at hand in the first century. Yet, most insist it is still future and entails the raising of physical bodies from the ground.
The Bible tells us when the resurrection was to be, and it is not in our future! Jesus' "first-fruit" resurrection occurred in "the end of the age" (Hebrews 9:26). Clearly, this was not at the end of the Christian Age. Jesus appeared in the end of the Mosaic Age. Can the first-fruit be at the end of one age, but the harvest at the end of a different age thousands of years later? The first-fruit and the harvest are never in different seasons. The suggestion is disjunctive to say the very least. The word "first-fruits" demands that harvest is near.
In Matthew 13:38-40 Jesus said, "harvest is the end of this age." Jesus was living in the Mosaic Age when he said this. He said the harvest would be at the end of the age in which he was living — not at the end of "the age to come." Since Jesus was the first-fruits of the resurrection, at the end of the Mosaic Age, and since he predicted the harvest would be at the end of that age, the harvest was to be at the end of the Mosaic Age — not at "the end of time."
This is confirmed in Revelation 14 where the 144,000 were the "first-fruits" of the harvest, unto God. An angel proclaimed: "the hour of his–judgment has come" (v. 6-8). This was the judgment on the Great City Babylon at the coming of the Son of Man — the time of harvest. The harvest would be when Babylon was judged. Babylon is identified as the Great City, "where the Lord was crucified" (Revelation 11:8). It was the city that had slain the Old Covenant prophets (18:24). This can be no other than Old Covenant Jerusalem (Luke 13:33). And her judgment, at the time of resurrection (Revelation 11:15f), was "at hand."
Jesus and John agree. Jesus said the harvest would be at the end of the age in which he was living. The end of that age was at the fall of Jerusalem in A.D. 70 (Matthew 24:3, 29-34). John said the harvest/resurrection would be when Babylon — the city that crucified the Lord — was judged. That was in A.D. 70.
Jesus and John were either right or wrong. If they predicted the raising of physical corpses out of the ground at the end of the Mosaic Age, then they were wrong.
Jesus' prediction as to the time was correct. It is the concept of physical resurrection that needs to be realigned in harmony with inspiration's time statements.
http://www.eschatology.org/articles/resurrection/resurrection1.htm
Like I said, this is a debate for Full vs. Partial Preterist. If your Eschatology view point is correct then your view of the resurrection is also. If mine is then you and A-mill are incorrect.