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As some tend to see if either Israel still has covenant with Yahweh now to some extent, or else the Jewish nation and people have no hope at all now, but does not the bible teach to us that while any saved Jew must come into the New Covenant and received Jesus as their savior and Lord, God still...

It that an essential of the Christian faith?

Refers back to some degree to our various Pst discussions here, for if one holds to that view of the atonement, then Jesus death secured a real salvation for real people he died in their stead for

Or that only true salvations can come about when Kjv is bible being used

maybe JOJ can help here, but though that John Rice did support the Asv 1901 as a good translation?

His will in salvation shall be accomplished and fulfilled exactly as He intended

God can never do anything contrary to His nature and attributes so cannot even conceive of uttering a lie

Do you hold that either the Holy Spirit guided and showed to the 1611 team what would be always the correct rendering into English, or that they received secondary inspiration off the already inspired TR text?

How can those who by very nature though refuse to acknowledge God as sovereign over them get saved by and of themselves?

He instead has chosen out for Himself a peculiar people, and thru the atoning death of His Son Jesus provided and secured a real salvation for them

Speaking to the known Earth of their time, not to missionaries who would centuries later be taking the gospel into darkest Africa or into Muslim nations now

Lost sinners have free will remaining to reject, but do they have any to choose Jesus as Lord and Savior?

Actually taken out from the Bible authors themselves

There have been big improvements in Lexicons and Greek and Hebrew reference works and tools since 1611, in knowledge of history and culture, and the scholars on the Esv/Nas/Esv?Niv translation teams fully as capably as any o nt he 1611 team

Correct

The Translators of the Nkjv and modern versions had many more sources and texts to use, advancement in Lexicons and tools, and were just as smart in original languages though

even the CT and TR text agree 90 % of the time between them

Can we assume that God intended to save all lost sinners by the Cross of Christ, or did He intended to save those whom Jesus died for in stead of?

So you do accept non tr greek texts then?

So how did a perfect translation get made off imperfect source texts?