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What is "it" to be challenged? My question is how and why the God of His heaven needs His Persons to witness in His heaven to who?

1: Corinthians 15:1-4, . . . the gospel . . . For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . .

Again, All the correct Greek for Revelation 1:8, . . . κυριος ο θεος . . . TR changed it to, . . . ο κυριος .

The translation was never made at issue. The TR missing "God" in Revelation 1:8 text has been the issue.

The Sabbath is a Day. Romans 14:5-6, One man esteemeth one day above another: another esteemeth every day alike. Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind. He that regardeth the day, regardeth it unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day, to the Lord he doth not regard it. :

The OP question why re: Psalms 12:7 "them" for Hebrew "his" KJVO meaning the word of God from verse 6?

20 minutes

Well, how do you recognize the Holy Scriptures?

The New Testament OT original quotations would be inerrant.

14 minutes

You didn't deal with Psalm 40:6 LXX being older than the Hebrew copies that differ.

This only beginning after His bodily resurrection and ascension. The NT OT quote is the original reading.

This sounds like you deny the immutability of God. Please give an undeniable case example of your claim.

11 minutes

Then that is effectively a denial of Biblical inerrancy.

Yep. Two questions I ask. Also which is oldest, which is the more common reading. Also whys. The texts between variants is of course the more common text. The text dating, goes to what is understood about manuscript writing their believed history. We pretty much have to believe the experts...

I am of the persuasion the NT OT quotes are the original OT. What turns out is the text between NT variants are always the same as the Byzantine! The differences are worth discussing.

God preserved His word. He gave our New Testament books in it's Greek. It's hand copied copies are in it's Greek. So am I to understand you think God changes it to something else? I presented a very specific change that is known to have occured. Re: Revelation 1:8, . . . κυριος ο θεος . . . TR...

Huh? Irrelevant. Re: Revelation 1:8, . . . κυριος ο θεος . . . TR changed it to, . . . ο κυριος . . . Omitting ο θεος.

https://www.baptistboard.com/threads/revelation-1-8.131408/