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Thank you for your reply, but you haven't really addressed the question. This is the doctrine of God concerning grace: Jhn 1:17 "For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by (διὰ) Jesus Christ." Does this mandate that Jesus Christ (the human) is the only way that grace comes...

Yes, but as I have already pointed out to you, not being able to exercise "free will" today, in respect of Christ, doesn't infer that yesterday (i.e. before you committed your prior act(s) of apostasy from (a) Moses and / or (b) Christ) that you were then unable to accept God's grace. You're...

There are three sources of doctrine (διδασκαλία) known to scripture: (1) The doctrines of God (Titus 2:20) (2) The doctrines of men (in a pejorative sense) (Mark 7:7, Matt 15:9, Eph 4:14 etc) (3) The doctrines of devils (Eph 4:14, 1 Tim 4:1). (2) & (3) may equate to the same thing. I never...

"Free will" / "will" does not appear in Jn 6:44, or Jn 6:65. It is thus easy to draw wrong conclusions about the role of the human will from these passages. This is your first fallacy: to make out that God's enabling overrides the will of man, but consider the converse. In the biblical record...

You do, for the reason I stated: the Jews had already been given free will by Moses, per Deut 30. When Christ came, the apostates from Moses were shut out from the new covenant, as being disabled by the Father because of their sins. This equates to excommunication from the new covenant. It's...

I believe you are reading John 6:44 & 6:65 the wrong way. These verses are articulating the judgement of God on unrepentant sinners, in the first instance, and so do not deny the "perfect law that gives freedom" (James 1:25), as given by Moses to them. For the character of the Father is...

There is nothing worth responding to in your Gordian (k)"nots," which add zero to the world's sum of knowledge. Myriads of bible commentaries oppose any other meaning to the answer that I gave you. It is you, who would change "the whole world" into "not the whole world," who must give a full...

I exposed a gaping sink hole in your ideology, of failing to distinguish the mind from the flesh, and you have nothing to say. The usage of the word "reprobate" in the bible concerns the mind in contradistinction to the flesh (Rom 1:28). Thus, you cannot use "reprobate" to allude to the flesh as...

No comment. No. But I am a simple Christian, in the sense I try not to let philosophy intrude into religion. Now you're addressing the fully grown man who has not honored and glorified God as he should. On this we probably agree, although perhaps not fully, as Jesus allows for differing...

I rather intended "It is not a flaw in man's constitution to say that man cannot live WITHOUT God." Children having godly parents will have a better probability of being godly children, for "Otherwise, your children would not be holy, but now they are holy." 1 Cor 7:14.

It is a gnostic teaching to presuppose that the creation itself is flawed. I deduce that this is your view as you maintain ALL infants are given to "loving darkness." That's not to say that some are given to sin. Sure, the bible records the cases of rebellious children, and laws against them...

Every man in the whole world.

If it doesn't, there is a grave risk of imputing a meaning to the word "predestine" that the Greek word (or word usage) won't bear. And confusion of Greek words is part of the Calvinistic problem. For a start, "predestine," which is not used in Rom 9, ought not to be confused with the Greek...

It's true sometimes "all" doesn't mean literally all, where all is circumscribed by context, but in many places all is not circumscribed by context. Then, it seems, we can always rely on Calvinists to come in and impose limitations consistent with Calvinism, but which limitations comprise...

Irrelevant diversion. You don't accept the words of Christ, then. It says God planned and purposed salvation, not damnation. Pure Manichaeism, and opposed by Christ (Matthew 19:14, Mark 10:14). I think you have a real problem in rejecting the heretical tenets of Manichaeism. Both the lost...

Jesus Christ is the enabler, for "What is impossible with man is possible with God" Luke 18:27, but Jesus doesn't force people into his kingdom. For over and again, he portrays it as an invitation, an invitation that many refuse, per Luke 14:18 etc. You however wrongly pretend the invitation was...

And your biblical evidence for this is what?

Some comments are better left unsaid. The word "predestine" is not used in Rom 9; and it would be contrary to God's character to use it of sinners, in the light of e.g. Ezekiel 33:11 "Say to them, ‘As surely as I live, declares the Sovereign LORD, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked...

Acts 17:28 "For in [God] we live and move and have our being." Acts 17:25 "God gives all life and breath to the all." Eph 4:6 "One God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all." Rom 1:19 "......since what may be known about God is plain to them, because God has made it plain...

Quite the contrary: it appears completely arbitrary. May be it wasn't God's purpose to "predestine" any to wrath, for "Do I take any pleasure in the death of the wicked? declares the Lord GOD. Wouldn’t I prefer that he turn from his ways and live?" Ezekiel 18:23. When you use the word...