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Why? Shakespeare is not Middle ages, or Dark ages. Shakespeare is Early Modern English. William Tyndale 1526 is Early Modern English. Wycliffe is medieval English and Anglo-Saxon might be considered Dark Ages.

Impossible.

Or you could just watch the short video and comment on any part that you wished. I like how he sqashes the telephone game comparison to how actual scribes really worked instead.

Excellent point. If the Original Text is not in the "Text", it will be in the footnotes. So the complete Original Text will be in the NKJV whether in the Text or Notes.

The New King James Version is a revision of the KJV Alan. Never believe anything David Daniels says. He is a false witness and does not know what he is talking about. Now there is a Fine scholar named David Daniels that writes about William Tyndale, and has produced a modern spelling edition of...

The NKJV is a revision of the KJV. And it is beyond dispute that the NKJV used the Textus Receptus Version of the Greek Text. The Original KJV used multiple editions of the Textus Receptus as well as other editions. Proof? https://www.bible-researcher.com/received.html

And yet they have no proof whatsoever.

The Majority manuscripts were copied first second third fourth fifth and so on and so fourth until the10th 11th 12th, 13th centuries. High quality copying. The earlier one's were copied early but they were so poor no one copied them. At least they did not leave any ancestors. Remember. When...

Or an * or ° ○● or some other Symbol?

There are many books in the KJV. Before the KJV in 1611, there was William Tyndale in the early 1500's. The KJV Translators mostly used his translations, as did Coverdale, the Great Bible, Matthew's, Geneva. https://www.tyndale.org/

Copied from Google Ai Examples of Early Modern English literature include Shakespeare's plays like Hamlet and Romeo and Juliet, Spenser's The Faerie Queene, and Milton's Paradise Lost. Other representative works are the King James Bible, Donne's metaphysical poems, and philosophical texts like...

Do you mean early modern English? How could that possibly be a sin? Is king Author a sin? Is Shakespeare a sin? The King James Version was written in Early Modern English. Or Archaic Modern English. All of the Older Bibles were. William Tyndales Bible was early Modern English.

A pretty huge blunder for a scribe. Hopefully some ancient scribes corrected those few manuscripts? If not they were not used enough for someone to notice. And are those manuscripts related in an ancient blunder?

Excellent video 37818!

https://www.bible-researcher.com/versions.html

Thank you for the resource. A good one.

Excellent videos that are not long.