Search results

That doesn't make sense. If the Greek can't give it, and the KJV New Testament is translated from the Greek, how did the translators know which was which?

But Greek isn't English. Some languages make all their nouns masculine, feminine and neuter. For example, in Latin, the word for "table" is "mensa", which is a feminine noun. In French, the word for "car" is "voiture," which is a feminine noun, That doesn't mean that when translating into...

Because as I have just mentioned in an answer to another of your posts, when the ESV or the NKJV (for example) use the word "ghost", they do so to translate the Greek word phantasma, which does mean "ghost." Phantasma is never used for the Holy Spirit.

Yet in the original Greek of the New Testament, the words used are always the same p- hagios pneuma. The Greek word for "ghost" is phantasma. It does occur in the New Testament, for example when the disciples see Jesus walking on the water.

I have just checked in the ESV. It uses the word "ghost" three times: Isa 29:4 And you will be brought low; from the earth you shall speak, and from the dust your speech will be bowed down; your voice shall come from the ground like the voice of a ghost, and from the dust...

As the Old Testament was originally in Hebrew, if you say the Hebrew needed correcting by English translations made hundreds of years later, you must believe that God gave people a faulty bible to start with, and left them with it for hundreds of years.