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Not only one instance at all. When the Ethiopian asked Philip for baptism, we read: NKJV Act 8:37 Then Philip said, "If you believe with all your heart, you may." And he answered and said, "I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God." Act 8:38 So he commanded the chariot to stand still. And...

Maybe, but saying tat Israel is the body of Moses is, to my mind, misleading. Thanks for the suggestion.

Sorry, but you seem to be ignoring much of Martin's post. For instance, he wrote: " I very much doubt that any Baptist or Bible-believing Protestant would hold Martin Luther as any authority beyond where his teaching is in line with the Bible; much less as an apostle. A quick flip through...

That doesn't make sense. How could millions have been saved by being baptised (immersed) in polluted water?

Whether the Roman Catholic teaching is that Mary didn't die, but is now in heaven both body and soul, or that she did die and her body and soul are now in heaven, the point remains that there is no mention in the Bible of h0er being bodily in heaven.

Even if Revelation did actually refer to Mary, the fact that she is in heaven is no proof that she went there by assumption, i.e. without dying. Her death or her leaving this earth, is not even mentioned in the Bible.

How can any church be pre-Bible? Even the earliest Christians had the Bible, albeit only the Old Testament, yet they used it. Jesus Himself taught the disciples on the road to Emmaus about Himself from the Old Testament: NKJV Luk 24:27 And beginning at Moses and all the Prophets, He expounded...

Most definitely not! I was just pointing out the thread title, and wondering what connection your post had with it.

A lot of assumptions there, for example: "1 hour = 41,666... years -> 42 Years 1/2 hour = 20,833... years.-> 21 years" But anyway, what has your post got to do with this thread about Mary's devotion to Jesus?

Sorry, but how do you know that Jude "was not, and is not, speaking of the physical body of Moses?"

But saying that baptism is efficacious for salvation is the same as saying that baptism is the cause of salvation. Where has Silverhair been dishonest in his posts? Just because somebody disagrees with you that doesn't mean they are being dishonest when the state how they disagree.

Yes, the Strong's definition of mesitēs includes the word "intercessor" but in brackets after the word "reconciler": "G3316 μεσίτης mesitēs mes-ee'-tace From G3319; a go between, that is, (simply) an internunciator, or (by implication) a reconciler (intercessor): - mediator." Are you...

Yes, the person praying or interceding has access to God: NKJV Eph 2:18 For through Him we both have access by one Spirit to the Father. But, even when we pray for the salvation of somebody, our praying does not provide the access for that person, in the way a mediator, or rather, the...

Is it legalism and quibbling to believe that it is important to see how words are used in the Bible? The Bible was not originally written in Latin, so pointing to the fact that the Latin root of the the English word "mediate" is "mediare" is neither here nor there. With the Bible, the...

True, I am interceding for them but I am not a mediator between them and God. Only Jesus Christ is that, as is stated in the Bible. Nowhere in the Bible is prayer called mediation. Only if you equate intercession with mediation. Not in the Bible. Nowhere in the Bible are Christians called...

Gospel Standard Baptists as far as I know are a very small proportion of Particular Baptists in the UK. (I don't know the precise numbers). Most Baptists in the UK were at one time Particular Baptists, as statements of faith such as the 1689 London Baptist Confession show. That 1689 Confession...

Never mind what a secular dictionary says. How does the Bible use the word "Mediator?" Does it ever use that word to refer to praying for somebody? No, not once.

I have just looked up the word "mediator" in the Bible. It occurs eight times. Not once is it used about somebody prayer/interceding to God for somebody else. It occurs twice in Job: NKJV Job_9:33 Nor is there any mediator between us, Who may lay his hand on us both. Job_33:23 "If there is...

How is praying the Lord's prayer being a mediator between God and man? The Bible is clear on mediatorship: NKJV 1Ti 2:5 For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus,

Particular Baptists, as I said before, are not Hyper-Calvinists. Spurgeon was a Particular Baptist, that is, he believed in particular redemption, but he stood firmly against Hyper-Calvinism.