• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

1 Corinthians 7:12

Status
Not open for further replies.
Skandelon

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
Aaron said:
The autographs don't exist. No one is asking you about them.
Click to expand...
Whether you or anyone asked about them is irrelevant. The opinions of scholars differ regarding the infallibility of the originals versus some modern copies, which WAS relevant to the answer I was addressing.

The question was about Paul's "opinion." Will God hold one accountable to Paul's "opinion" as if the words were spoken by Christ Himself on the earth?
Click to expand...
What do you think? Do you think an elect man will be "judged" by God, or held to account, if he chooses to get married even if he could have resisted and remained single? What will God do to him for making that choice against Paul's clearly expressed wisdom on the subject?
 
P

psalms109:31

Active Member
Unbeliever

What if someone is married to an unbeliever and they are always putting down Jesus and trying to get you to deny your Savior constantly but still wants to stay with you. Do you stay with them?
 
P

preacher4truth

Active Member
Aaron said:
The autographs don't exist. No one is asking you about them. The question was about Paul's "opinion." Will God hold one accountable to Paul's "opinion" as if the words were spoken by Christ Himself on the earth?
Click to expand...


:thumbsup: :smilewinkgrin:

Yep, like I told him, strawman. One should know better than saying the Word of God is Pauls opinion. This shows a lack of understanding the passage, and is another glaring proof-texting error on his part.
 
B

Bob Alkire

New Member
Here Paul is referring to persons not in the general category of verse 10.
Paul is now dealing with mixed marriages between a believer and an unbeliever.
Paul could not repeat a teaching of Jesus because He had not spoken on this subject. God inspired Paul’s instructions on this subject so they were as authoritative as the teachings of Jesus.
The point is clear, in a mixed marriage the Christian partner is not to take the initiative to separate or divorce.
 
A

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
Look at that. A clear concise answer. This fella says, Yes, Paul's "opinion" on the subject is as if Christ had spoken the words while on earth.

Why can't you do that, Scandal? Is it because you'd say "No," and are afraid of the repercussions?
 
Skandelon

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
Aaron said:
I asked first. I asked a yes or no question. Answer yes, or answer no.
Click to expand...

Yes, people would be wise to follow Godly wisdom of an apostle writing under the inspiration of the spirit regarding "disputable" matters such as whether to marry or stay single; whether or not to eat meat or abstain; or how to handling a situation of an unbelieving spouse.

No, a statement of concession is not equal to a direct command. Both are inspired and authoritative, but not equal regarding how they are to be applied.

Even Paul draws the distinction between speaking "by way of concession, not of commandment." In "way of concession" or permission, the apostle leaves the believer a measure of freedom to make a wise decision within the circumstance. A statement of command given by God would not give such concession. For example, a male believer doesn't have the freedom to decide if he wants to marry another man, God has clearly forbid it, or commanded against such behavior. Eating meat, choosing to remain single or staying with an unbelieving spouse is not as cut and dry. Clear enough?

I thought my question to you would help you to see that distinction but apparently you are more about getting a "yes or no" so that you can fill in the blanks with what you think that must mean and once again put words into my mouth that I have never nor would ever say.

Have fun with that, I think most objective readers see right through it.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
J

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
Skandelon said:
Whether you or anyone asked about them is irrelevant. The opinions of scholars differ regarding the infallibility of the originals versus some modern copies, which WAS relevant to the answer I was addressing.
do you than hold to the originals being inerrant and inspired "fully"?
or is it limited to doctrines of faith, errors elsewhere?

And are the 'copies" of those originals that we use to translate off from also infallible witness to word of God?
What do you think? Do you think an elect man will be "judged" by God, or held to account, if he chooses to get married even if he could have resisted and remained single? What will God do to him for making that choice against Paul's clearly expressed wisdom on the subject?
Click to expand...


Paul ONLY stated that God desired those with gift from Him to remain celibete to do that, and THAT was a preferred option to those chosen by God with such..
he also stated that due to present danger , best to stay as you were at this time, married/single etc... Situational command!

again, are ALL of the statements of doctrine/theology recorded down in NTconsidered to be "equally" inspired/infallible regardless if said was an opinion or jesus spoke it directly Himself?

THIS issue goes to the very heart of reliability of the Sacred texts!
 
Q

quantumfaith

Active Member
Skandelon said:
Yes, people would be wise to follow Godly wisdom of an apostle writing under the inspiration of the spirit regarding "disputable" matters such as whether to marry or stay single; whether or not to eat meat or abstain; or how to handling a situation of an unbelieving spouse.

No, a statement of concession is not equal to a direct command. Both are inspired and authoritative, but not equal regarding how they are to be applied.

Even Paul draws the distinction between speaking "by way of concession, not of commandment." In "way of concession" or permission, the apostle leaves the believer a measure of freedom to make a wise decision within the circumstance. A statement of command given by God would not give such concession. For example, a male believer doesn't have the freedom to decide if he wants to marry another man, God has clearly forbid it, or commanded against such behavior. Eating meat, choosing to remain single or staying with an unbelieving spouse is not as cut and dry. Clear enough?

I thought my question to you would help you to see that distinction but apparently you are more about getting a "yes or no" so that you can fill in the blanks with what you think that must mean and once again put words into my mouth that I have never nor would ever say.

Have fun with that, I think most objective readers see right through it.
Click to expand...

You can bet your biscuits objective person can see it for what it is, a sad and pointed attempt at "gotcha" theology.
 
D

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Aaron said:
Look at that. A clear concise answer. This fella says, Yes, Paul's "opinion" on the subject is as if Christ had spoken the words while on earth.
Click to expand...
Since all Scripture is inspired of God, so is Paul's whether or not it was an opinion at that time. That point is irrelevant. It is inspired now. It is scripture now. At that time it was his advice. Now it is the inspired Word of God. Having said that, all Scripture, no matter what book one is reading, must be interpreted in the context in which it was written. Why did Paul say what he said? That is the more important question to answer. What were the conditions at that time? What was going on in the Corinthian Church? What on earth was happening that Paul would seemingly advise members of the church not to marry (near the end of the chapter), while throughout the rest of the Bible marriage is portrayed as a sacred institution and encouraged? Why does Paul seem to contradict himself as to what he writes in Ephesians 5? The context answers these questions, but the context is not so evident.
 
A

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
Skandelon said:
Yes, people would be wise to follow Godly wisdom of an apostle writing under the inspiration of the spirit regarding "disputable" matters such as whether to marry or stay single; whether or not to eat meat or abstain; or how to handling a situation of an unbelieving spouse.

No, a statement of concession is not equal to a direct command. Both are inspired and authoritative, but not equal regarding how they are to be applied.

Even Paul draws the distinction between speaking "by way of concession, not of commandment." In "way of concession" or permission, the apostle leaves the believer a measure of freedom to make a wise decision within the circumstance. A statement of command given by God would not give such concession. For example, a male believer doesn't have the freedom to decide if he wants to marry another man, God has clearly forbid it, or commanded against such behavior. Eating meat, choosing to remain single or staying with an unbelieving spouse is not as cut and dry. Clear enough?

I thought my question to you would help you to see that distinction but apparently you are more about getting a "yes or no" so that you can fill in the blanks with what you think that must mean and once again put words into my mouth that I have never nor would ever say.

Have fun with that, I think most objective readers see right through it.
Click to expand...
Let me rephrase the question. Does God expect us to regard Paul's judgment as if it were a verbatim from Christ? Is it as if Christ had said one is not bound to a marriage if he is deserted by an unbelieving spouse?

Yes or no.
 
Skandelon

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
Aaron said:
Let me rephrase the question. Does God expect us to regard Paul's judgment as if it were a verbatim from Christ?
Click to expand...
Yes.
Christ could give a concession rather than a command just as Paul did. The distinction is not the author, its the qualification given by the author.
 
R

RedWoodTree

New Member
DHK said:
Since all Scripture is inspired of God, so is Paul's whether or not it was an opinion at that time. That point is irrelevant. It is inspired now. It is scripture now. At that time it was his advice. Now it is the inspired Word of God. Having said that, all Scripture, no matter what book one is reading, must be interpreted in the context in which it was written. Why did Paul say what he said? That is the more important question to answer. What were the conditions at that time? What was going on in the Corinthian Church? What on earth was happening that Paul would seemingly advise members of the church not to marry (near the end of the chapter), while throughout the rest of the Bible marriage is portrayed as a sacred institution and encouraged? Why does Paul seem to contradict himself as to what he writes in Ephesians 5? The context answers these questions, but the context is not so evident.
Click to expand...

agreed! You hit the nail on the hammer or hammer on the nail.:thumbsup:
 
P

preacher4truth

Active Member
DHK said:
No. But the above is your opinion at this time and it is laughable.
Click to expand...

You don't understand this passage at all. I don't find this laughable. Perhaps you should do some study on this from men of God with knowledge of proper interpreatation, who could lead you in the right direction and teach you what the passage at hand means. Your deficient understanding has made yet another appearance, and this is more than opinion concerning you, it's a given. :)
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top