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1 John 5v12

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Bro. Williams

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I'm just living by Faith and trusting in the Lord brother, that's all. Plus, nothing mentioned in all the time I have been here (BB) or by anyone else has ever proved that there was a mistake in the translation.
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Bro. Williams said:
I'm just living by Faith and trusting in the Lord brother, that's all. Plus, nothing mentioned in all the time I have been here (BB) or by anyone else has ever proved that there was a mistake in the translation.

You yourself said that what we have is the result of a copyist mistake. It is obvious that a mistake was made someplace, either that or it was a mistake to alter it in later editions. Note I do NOT THINK there was mistake in the translation, I think it was either by a copyist (like you think) or the printer. No one can prove if the translators made a mistake or not, I don't think they did, but we will never know since we don't have their copies.

We are all doing the same, living by Faith and trusting the Lord. Amen to that.
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Its been (mostly) fun but we quickly approach the page 20 limit here.


I won't promise, but I don't think I will post again so no one can accuse me of using my powers to have the last word. I know no one would accuse me of that, but just in case :).
 

Keith M

New Member
Salamander said:
Even in Hebrew and Greek God is not limited to any one word or even a group of words. English is no exception. As I told you many times, you have no point.

Salamander, you would limit God to one particular set of words called the King James Version! Yet the particular words in different KJVs do not match. 1 John 5:12 is a great example of different words found in different versions called the KJV. If we were to accept your standard then, in order to be consistent, we would have to say one of the KJVs is not the perfectly preserved word of God because it has different words. It is shameful to hold the position you hold, Salamander, supporting the use of different words in the KJVs yet condemning the use of different words in other versions.
 

Keith M

New Member
Dr. Bob said:
Since we do not have a single copy of the "original 1611" that was "perfect", all we have are the printer's editions, starting with edition #1. With that mentality yoiu can simply look at ANY variation between any edition and revision of the AV (100+ of them) and say that it is a "mistaken copy".

And the original AV1611, which no one has (destroyed in a fire), has no imperfection.

Amazing twisting and dancing. Chubby Checker would shout. :applause:

Twisting and dancing seems to be the standard for those who claim both versions of 1 John 5:12 are without error, even thouh they are different. If I start twisting and dancing like that maybe I won't need cardiac rehab.
 

Keith M

New Member
C4K said:
Its been (mostly) fun but we quickly approach the page 20 limit here.


I won't promise, but I don't think I will post again so no one can accuse me of using my powers to have the last word. I know no one would accuse me of that, but just in case :).

Whether you have the last word or not, Roger, is irrelevant. The main thing is that you support truth despite the opposition of those who support a double standard and untruth.
 

Salamander

New Member
Keith M said:
Salamander, you would limit God to one particular set of words called the King James Version! Yet the particular words in different KJVs do not match. 1 John 5:12 is a great example of different words found in different versions called the KJV. If we were to accept your standard then, in order to be consistent, we would have to say one of the KJVs is not the perfectly preserved word of God because it has different words. It is shameful to hold the position you hold, Salamander, supporting the use of different words in the KJVs yet condemning the use of different words in other versions.
Well, Brother, since you love to think like that you'll just have to remain mistaken.

You're arguing against my person due to some previous encounter with some one you're mistaking me for that person.

BTW, it is The King James Bible in the Authorized Version.

KJ "V" was introduce to pacify those who objected to its Superiority in translation.

By your estimation, as shamefully it yet remains, anytime anyone introduces any MSS that does not hold to, get this, the original MSS, due solely because there are no present day original MSS, you then would have NO perfect word of God and then bring forth an accusation against God Himself in that He is not able to perfectly preserve His word in letter or thought!

Your error, but if you wish to remain holding to error, be my guest.
 

Salamander

New Member
Keith M said:
Twisting and dancing seems to be the standard for those who claim both versions of 1 John 5:12 are without error, even thouh they are different. If I start twisting and dancing like that maybe I won't need cardiac rehab.
I wish I could find an emoticon of your strawman doing the Peppermint Twist. Or is that the Tin Man?
 

Salamander

New Member
Keith M said:
Whether you have the last word or not, Roger, is irrelevant. The main thing is that you support truth despite the opposition of those who support a double standard and untruth.
The letter of the law killeth, but the Spirit giveth life.

You'd best research those words and try to better understand what the Lord meant when He inspired the Apostle Paul to give us those words.:praying:
 

Salamander

New Member
Mexdeaf said:
Okay, then, let me re-phrase, your honor...

I know godly people who use other English versions and they are by no means 'substandard Christians'.
Good, so do I and we agree there are some. I know many that use the KJB exclusively that would fall under either heading.

OTOH, I know people who swear by the KJV who I wouldn't take a walk in the park with after dark. One is a man who was my pastor for 6 years and a well-known KJVO proponent.
Speak evil of no man, lest thou also being tempted fall into the devil's snare and are overcome by him at his will.

But I would never call ALL KJVO people 'substandard' as you have slammed all who use MV's.
You would like everyone to believe I did, but I did no such thing. I simply made a general application to the general MV users as a whole. Learn what that means in English and translate it into Spanish.
 

Salamander

New Member
EdSutton said:
Yet you apparently have no problem with 'limiting His intent' to a single version, which is not really such but has had many 'revisions' even while being known as the KJV. Americanized spellings, I John 5:12, which we are discussing, etc.

So who is it that really is 'limiting' "the Spirit by limiting God's words"??

I say "Not me!"

I have never denied that any version is incorrect or is fallible regardless of the words actually employed, if the accurate sense of the Greek of the NT is conveyed accurately. (I know no Hebrew or Aramaic, so that does not apply, here, as I have to depend on others in that.)

As to who actually denies or 'limits', on the other hand .... :rolleyes:

Ed
I have never even thought any other of the KJB as to do nothing less than enhance the Greek and Hebrew into an understandable translation into English by holding to the MSS received by those very churches established by the Apostles. If that "limits" God, (somehow:rolleyes: ) then He is the one who set the limits.:praying:
 
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