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1 Thessalonians 2v14

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by NaasPreacher (C4K), Jan 23, 2005.

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  1. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    C4k,

    I did NOT QUESTION YOUR SALVATION! I recognize your LACK OF FAITH IN THIS ISSUE! This is not questioning your salvation. PLease try harder to understand what is being said, so that YOU are not guilty of FALSE ACCUSING ME AGAIN. Thank you.

    Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
    #21 michelle, Jan 25, 2005
  2. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    I will not debate the issue with you publically and you have your PMs blocked. Adminstration will decide if your words "your lack of faith in God" and another personal attacks in the deleted post are grounds for action.

    Now, back to the thread - is there are mistake in the KJV1611 in this verse? Most here would say yes.
     
    #22 NaasPreacher (C4K), Jan 25, 2005
  3. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Just what is it then, you are trying to prove C4K? Is there a point to this thread, and if so, what exactly is it? You beat to death the truth, so many can feel justified in error? How in the world is the edifying to the body of Christ? How does this help others to be strong in thier faith in the word of God and it's authority? Please tell us?


    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
    #23 michelle, Jan 25, 2005
  4. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    95% of the posters see my point - the claim that the KJV1611 is letter for letter perfect is a fallacious claim. This thread proves it.
     
    #24 NaasPreacher (C4K), Jan 25, 2005
  5. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Again, how does this edify the sheep of the Good Shepard, and encourage faith in the word of God? The point you seem to be presenting, and encouraging seem to be sowing the seed of DOUBT. I would not tread there, if I were you.


    <attack on spirituality deleted>


    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle

    [ January 25, 2005, 01:12 PM: Message edited by: C4K ]
     
    #25 michelle, Jan 25, 2005
  6. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Seeking truth is not casting doubt. Christians should NEVER make arguements they cannot defend with the Word of God.

    Either "the" or "our" is correct. One is a mistake, which is it and why is that the mistake?
     
    #26 NaasPreacher (C4K), Jan 25, 2005
  7. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Funny you should say this. You do not defend the word of Godn nor do you do this with the very word of God, but condone errors that have been done to the very words of God, by beating to death the truth, and you cannot defend your compromise with error with the very words you so claim you are defending, when in reality you are attacking.

    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
    #27 michelle, Jan 25, 2005
  8. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Which is correct - "the" or "our"?

    Instead of using your favourite method of personal attack, would you care to answer, please?
     
    #28 NaasPreacher (C4K), Jan 25, 2005
  9. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Both. Jesus Christ is the Lord, and He is also our Lord. Both are correct, and you nitpick on such little words, as to have not any danger, as those presented in the modern versions. Your passion in this issue is clearly focused on the wrong side, and in defense of blatant and obvious errors. All this, because your focus is upon a label, and labels, rather than the truth.


    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
    #29 michelle, Jan 25, 2005
  10. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Both cannot be an accurate translation in this verse. Which is right?
     
    #30 NaasPreacher (C4K), Jan 25, 2005
  11. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Oh they sure can, and they sure are! Is Jesus Christ THE LORD? Is he also OUR LORD? ARe they not one in the same thing? Yes, and you know very well this is the truth. I see through your "nitpicking" and human reasoning, and I hope and pray to God that others also will.


    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
    #31 michelle, Jan 25, 2005
  12. natters

    natters New Member

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    Michelle is trying to play both sides: arguing about doctrine when being asked about text, and arguing text when being asked about doctrine. Whichever is more slippery and allows her to avoid a direct answer, is the approach she'll use.

    Michelle, which word is the one God inspired, and which is a deviation from the inspired word? Yes, both are TRUE - but if the verse said "natters likes bananas", that would also be true, but that wouldn't be what was the originally inspired words. But why am I explaining this to you? You already understand this, but would rather play your game anyway instead of actually admitting there's a crack in your position. Your blind defiance to admitting this actually makes your stance appear MORE ridiculous, not less.
     
    #32 natters, Jan 25, 2005
  13. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Now you are saying that it takes two editions of the KJV to get a word right, the 1611 AND the 1769 version???

    Which one is the translation God wanted us to have??

    The word "the" IS NOT the same word as "our".

    If we were comparing this word in the KJV and the NIV the KJVO crowd would be screaming about how the MV doubted and called into question the ability of Jesus to be our personal God saying that MV relegated him just to an impersonal "the" Lord. The problem is that EVERY MV, as well as tjhe later KJVs got this right, the only error was in the KJV1611.
     
    #33 NaasPreacher (C4K), Jan 25, 2005
  14. Scott J

    Scott J Active Member
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    Michelle, This is one of those instances that I have tried to explain to you many times.

    Neither of the words produce a false statement. Both statements are in fact true.

    The problem is that you claim the KJV is the "very words of God" to the exclusion of all others. I have tried to get you to agree that the same things can be said using different wording but you reject that... until you need to accept it to perpetuate what you believe about the KJV.

    Either different wording can mean the same thing or it can't. You simply need to decide and stop trying to play both sides.
     
    #34 Scott J, Jan 25, 2005
  15. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    So, when and which version does the KJV finally become "perfect"?

    Another question:

    Has it become perfect yet, or are other versions yet forthcoming?

    If we think it is NOW perfect, then how do we know for sure if it was incorrect for 158 years?

    Obviously, there were some generations in there without the "perfect word-for-word" English translation. Hmmmmmmmmmm.
     
    #35 Phillip, Jan 25, 2005
  16. GrannyGumbo

    GrannyGumbo <img src ="/Granny.gif">

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    95% of the posters see my point

    "Praise God to be in the minority! Enter ye in at the strait gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and MANY there be which go in thereat."

    Oh happy day...Jesus is coming soon! [​IMG]
     
    #36 GrannyGumbo, Jan 25, 2005
  17. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    I am not playing both sides. And I will repeat what I have said continually - the word changes that have occured in the modern versions are not at all on the same level of comparison in many cases. "The" or "Our" does not weaken the testimony of, nor deity of Jesus Christ, nor has it taken away solid Godly truth, as is revealed in many cases in the mv's. It is futile for you to refuse to see this, and then claim falsely that I and others hold to double standards, when it is clear of the compromise of your position with blatant errors/alterations that NO ONE that Loves the Lord and his truth WOULD OR SHOULD ever condone or try to JUSTIFY.


    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
    #37 michelle, Jan 25, 2005
  18. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    I don't really think that any KJVO is going to be able to give an answer to this question.

    My point is that we should subject EVERY version to the same microscopic scrutiny to which MVs are subjected.

    If we scrutinise an MV to this degree we are defending the faith, according to some. If we do the same to various editions of the KJV we are nit-picking and doubting God.

    What gives?
     
    #38 NaasPreacher (C4K), Jan 25, 2005
  19. natters

    natters New Member

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    Context is your friend. :rolleyes:
     
    #39 natters, Jan 25, 2005
  20. natters

    natters New Member

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    That's irrelevant in the context of the question being asked of you.

    Besides, if you can play that game, then so can we. "Yes, 'God' was manifest in the flesh, yes, 'he' was. Both are true! La la la!"
     
    #40 natters, Jan 25, 2005
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