1 Thessalonians 2v14

Now do you see it C4K, with Phillips post, in how you ENCOURAGE others to lack 100% faithfulness in the word of God and it's authority?


Every man has become wise in his own eyes.

Isaiah 5

20. Woe unto them that call evil good, and good evil; that put darkness for light, and light for darkness; that put bitter for sweet, and sweet for bitter!
21. Woe unto them that are wise in their own eyes, and prudent in their own sight!


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

I think the 1611 was most likly in error at this point. To bad no KJVO's can answer this one!

 

Sure Natters, you are always playing a game, and quite good at it I might add, but it doesn't mean you are right. What saith the scriptures concerning this issue? You refuse to go there, cause you cannot find anything to defend your "whateverism" or anything goes ism even at the expense of truth. Many here are merely men pleasers, and do not strive first to please our Lord. Sad indeed. It is just all one big game for you all, isn't it? WEll, this is NOT A GAME, and it is a very serious issue, that you make light of by claiming we are playing a game when sharing with you serious truth.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

BUT, Now you are admitting that it is okay to use synonymous words. This now kills your theory of "word-for-word perfection".

Either there has been a "word-for-word" perfect Bible for all generations of English speaking people or there hasn't been. Which is it? If you say there has, then does God change words, even if they are synonymous?

So, now we can get rid of the thee's and the thou's without hurting the Bible because the same words can now be modernized.

(I think we'll wind up pretty close to the NKJV.)

Slowly, but surely, you are starting to see the facts that are going to eliminate the "word-for-word" perfection theory. You know why? Because it doesn't happen.

 

^^^^

AAAAAAAAAAAAAAMEN, Phillip!

 

I agree with Ed. I am going to become a Geneva onlyist, why?

1) The Geneva has been around longer than the KJV.

2) The Geneva got this right the first time, so it had it had the right words for all generations since it was written.

3) The Geneva was the Bible America was founded on. It was the Bible brought over by the Pilgrams.

4) It is the non-catholic/neo-catholic English Church Bible.

How many want to join the Geneva only club?

 

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Nope. Phillip loves the Word of God and trusts in it completely.
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<attack deleted> He and many of you rather trust completely in some languages you have no understanding in, and the belief that Only the origionals were perfect, and all else are not, to which results in your own opinons and understandings rather than upon FAITH and his teaching and giving understanding. This is what it all boils down to in the end. You cannot, nor will be able to escape this if you remain in it. This path you are on, only leads to more doubt, and not faith - all to justify your favorite flavor of the month and appease one another, rather than to edify, care for and love one another, regardless of what may come of it. We are commanded to contend for the faith once delivered unto the saints, and to have faith in the scriptures. <attack deleted>

As Sister Granny quoted, and to which is very relevant to this discussion, I will also reiterate:


Matthew 7

3. Enter ye in at the strait gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go in thereat:
14. Because strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it.


Yes, and please take your own advice and read the whole chapter in CONTEXT and with understanding and also rightly divide the word of truth.



Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

[ January 25, 2005, 03:09 PM: Message edited by: C4K ]

 

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BUT, Now you are admitting that it is okay to use synonymous words. This now kills your theory of "word-for-word perfection".

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Phillip do you understand what synonymous words are? If you do, then you will see your error in this statement and attempt at painting a very wrong picture of others. I also have never said any such thing, and in fact have said the opposite of what you so try to paint over something different from what I have said.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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3) The Geneva was the Bible America was founded on. It was the Bible brought over by the Pilgrams.
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I've got news for ya - so also was the good ole King James Bible. Hows that for the facts!


Obviously the churches of God had a problem with it, as it had withered away out of the churches, and the King James Bible was the accepted and beloved Holy Bible, in the churches of this country and almost every other. You doubt this? God's word is in, and remains in his churches, with his faithful people.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Please show where the NKJV does anything that changes the meaning more than this change between the 1611 and 1769.

I took a tract awhile back that supposedly exposed the heinous subtily that the NKJV employs to change the meaning. None of the examples are any worse than what you are arguing is acceptable here... and most of them are down right deceptive.

This is an honest "error" on the part of the translators that was corrected by later revisors as it should have been. However, it does slightly change the meaning of the text. As someone pointed out, "our" has a personal connotation that "the" does not.

 

Are you NOW saying that you NEVER said that every single word down to the period and comma was perfect in the KJV?

Yes, I know well what synomymous means, this is the reason I do not have trouble with a translation in a modern version of English.

Thank you for your compliment C4K!

Now, michelle, if you want, I can dig up all of the posts you made about letter for letter perfection in the KJV, are you now changing that stance and claiming you never made those claims?

 

By the way "the" and "our" are NOT synonymous words. Go ask any English 101 teacher.

But, then again you have made TWO arguments on this site which are mutually exlusive:

1) You said that at least the KJV has corrected its mistakes.

2) Then you said that there is no difference between "the" and "our".

Which is it?

 

Really? So OUR Lord is not THE Lord in our life? He is in mine. How bout yours?


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Michelle, if you are going to continue to make your "not so hidden" snide remarks about people we are going to have to stop debating with you.

We have proven that we can have very good debates over very difficult subjects and not personally attack one another.

I think you would do well to stick directly to the subject and quit bringing your emotions to the board.

No, "THE" and "OUR" is Not synomymous.

Example:
Satan is the ruler over the world.

Satan is our ruler over the world.

 

He's also the "Lord of Lords, and the Lord of sabaoth, Lord of hosts, Lord of glory and Lord of peace" - would you defend a translation that had those words as well in this verse as being accurate?

 

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Now, michelle, if you want, I can dig up all of the posts you made about letter for letter perfection in the KJV, are you now changing that stance and claiming you never made those claims?
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What the Lord has given us is his word perfectly, word for word in our language - absolutely. Now take your understanding of synonyms, and apply it to this also. Then you just might see it.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle