1 Timothy 2 - All Men

[Dave G]

In 1 Timothy 2, does the "all" in bold italics refer to the same or different people groups? If they are different, what hermeneutical methodology, if any, is being utilized to divide them up?

I exhort therefore, that, first of all, supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks, be made for all men; for kings, and for all that are in authority; that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and honesty. For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour; who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.

Perhaps I'm misunderstanding the OP, but the translation I read from ( since I was called into the fellowship of the saints some 47 years ago now ) does not put the same words into italics as yours does.
Here is what the "KJV" says:

" I exhort therefore, that, first of all, supplications, prayers, intercessions, [and] giving of thanks, be made for all men;
2 for kings, and [for] all that are in authority; that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and honesty.
3 For this [is] good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;
4 who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
5 For [there is] one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
6 who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
7 Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, ( I speak the truth in Christ, [and] lie not ) a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity.


8 I will therefore that men pray every where, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and doubting.
9 In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with broided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array;
10 but (which becometh women professing godliness) with good works.
11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
15 Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety."

 

[Dave G]

The bracketed words in the text above are in italics in the Authorized, and they show the words that were added by the translators of it for continuity, but are not strictly a part of the text; while I see the words that I've bolded ( and that you've shown in italics ) to be the subject of the OP.

That said, my own personal understanding of the passage is that Paul is telling Timothy that prayers, etc. be made for all men.
He then goes on to tell him who the "all men " are that we are to pray for...
All that are in authority.

I also know that the "all men " in verse 4 are all of God's elect ( whom Paul suffered much for, see 2 Timothy 2:10 ),
That the "men" in verse 5 are also God's elect ( as Christ does not sit at the right hand of God and mediate for those who are not saved ),
That the "all" in verse 6 are those who were reconciled to God by the death of His Son ( again, God's elect, those that have believed and that Paul told those words to ...see Romans 5 ),
That the "men" in verse 8 are those that have believed on Christ and no others,
That the "women" in verse 9 are, again, those that have believed on Christ.

To answer the OP,

There is no "hermeneutical methodology" that I have ever used to get to my understanding of it.
Rather, as I've studied the Bible now for some 23 years or so, that's how it strikes me...
Given the truths of His word that are stated in the epistles ( and other places ) by the Lord's apostles and prophets.


The grace of God is limited to a select group, and that group is who He has saved and called with a holy calling...
Not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was given to us in Christ before the world began ( 2 Timothy 1:9 ).

May God bless you.

 

[Silverhair]

The bracketed words in the text above are in italics in the Authorized, and they show the words that were added by the translators of it for continuity, but are not strictly a part of the text; while I see the words that I've bolded ( and that you've shown in italics ) to be the subject of the OP.

That said, my own personal understanding of the passage is that Paul is telling Timothy that prayers, etc. be made for all men.
He then goes on to tell him who the "all men " are that we are to pray for...
All that are in authority.

I also know that the "all men " in verse 4 are all of God's elect ( whom Paul suffered much for, see 2 Timothy 2:10 ),
That the "men" in verse 5 are also God's elect ( as Christ does not sit at the right hand of God and mediate for those who are not saved ),
That the "all" in verse 6 are those who were reconciled to God by the death of His Son ( again, God's elect, those that have believed and that Paul told those words to ...see Romans 5 ),
That the "men" in verse 8 are those that have believed on Christ and no others,
That the "women" in verse 9 are, again, those that have believed on Christ.

To answer the OP,

There is no "hermeneutical methodology" that I have ever used to get to my understanding of it.
Rather, as I've studied the Bible now for some 23 years or so, that's how it strikes me...
Given the truths of His word that are stated in the epistles ( and other places ) by the Lord's apostles and prophets.


The grace of God is limited to a select group, and that group is who He has saved and called with a holy calling...
Not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was given to us in Christ before the world began ( 2 Timothy 1:9 ).

May God bless you.

@Dave G this is what you wrote
"Paul is telling Timothy that prayers, etc. be made for all men.
He then goes on to tell him who the "all men " are that we are to pray for...
All that are in authority."

So as you understand Paul's words we are to only pray for men in authority. But that would mean we are only to pray for some men and in actual fact that would be very few men and no women at all.
But it would seem that Paul meant the Greek word ἀνθρώπους (anthrōpous) to be understood generically, referring to both men and women.

But Paul's words disagree with that view and he even tells us why we are to pray for "all men"
1] because God desires all to be saved
2] Christ gave Himself as a ransom for all

When Paul carved out "kings and all those in authority" for prayer he even gave the reason for doing so, "so that we may lead tranquil and quiet lives in all godliness and dignity"

Are we to pray for those in the body of Christ, yes, but where in this text do you get that prayers are only to be made for believers? Do you not pray for those that have not come to know Jesus? Or do you think that only those that have been picked out B4 creation can be saved?

Paul was clear in his words
What are we told in these verses that relates to "all men"
1] supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks, be made for all men
2] God our Saviour; who will have all men to be saved
3] Christ Jesus; who gave himself a ransom for all

 

[Van]

This should be an excellent thread, the Opening Post asked an excellent question, how do we, bible students discern the scope or extent of a word like "all." Obviously it should refer to the contextual scope, and not be minimized or expanded to a larger scope than intended.

Agenda driven interpretations would expand or minimize the scope to fit a man-made doctrine, ignoring the indicated scope based on context.

Lets take 1 Timothy 2:1 NASB:

First of all, then, I urge that requests, prayers, intercession, and thanksgiving be made in behalf of all people,​

Does this request for requests, prayers, intercession and thanksgiving apply to all people without exception. How do we pray for people we do not know exist? Clearly the scope is limited to all the people we are aware of, neighbors and acquaintances we interact with, plus people we are aware of like governmental authorities, first responders, and the like.

But should we limit the scope even further, to "all kinds of people, but not every person of a kind?"

Here we must ask the question, what does the context indicate? When we consider verse 2, we see that we are to interact well with everyone we encounter, so as to produce quiet and tranquil circumstance, plus those in authority. There is no support from the context to limit the scope to say Jews but not Gentiles, or believers but not the lost.

Now lets turn to the heart of the matter, does God desire that all people be saved, or just a preselected subset, those supposedly chosen before creation? The context suggests all people regardless of kind. For example, not just Jews, but also non-Jews. Thus an expansive context.