• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

2 Cor. 2:17

Artimaeus

Active Member
Pastor Larry is right. This verse has nothing to do with translations. It has everything to do with purposeful misusing the word for your own purposes (power, money, influence, etc.) Paul was telling Timothy that sincerely speaking the truth about Christ was their goal, without any ulterior motives.
 

Pastor Larry

<b>Moderator</b>
Site Supporter
Originally posted by MV-neverist:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Where in Pastor Larry's quote did he attack the KJV?
I ment to put "correct" instead;my bad. </font>[/QUOTE]Either "attack" or "correct" is your bad. :( ... Get your head out of the sand and look at the facts. Paul was not referring to translations, much less the KJV. Use Scripture properly, not to serve your own ends.
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Dr. Bob Griffin:
In some places, sadly, the AV1611 corrupted the Word of God with their word choices, translation policies, added words, books, et al. I believe the MV's have likewise corrupted the Word of God by some of their word choices, translation policies, added words, (no added books, thankfully), et al.
Please explain, why you say that AV1611 corrupted the word of God?
 

Harald

New Member
Askjo. I cannot answer for Griffin. But if you read closely he says "in some places". I will not say if the word "corrupted" is warranted or too strong, but it is true that sometimes the KJV renders imprecisely as compared to the TR. The degree of seriousness varies according to individual passages. A serious one in my estimation is 1Cor. 1:25 where the KJV introduces a new attribute of God, "foolishness". Or it may be it only apes some previous versions, nevertheless this is not true of God, that He has such an attribute, nor yet has He "weakness". Both these are attributes of mortal men here on earth. The Textus Receptus has an adjective in neuter gender - "foolish thing (of God)". Likewise it has another one of the same kind in asthenos - "strengthless (possibly "weak") thing (of God)". The KJV reader should be aware of this translational blunder while reading this passage.
The "foolish thing" and "strengthless thing" of God refers to His chosen people as individuals, in a slightly derogatory sense - "thing". And many if not most other versions follow in the footsteps of this KJV error in this verse. This should not be.

Harald
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
Originally posted by Askjo:
Please explain, why you say that AV1611 corrupted the word of God?
1. Most common example of totally fabricating text would be "God forbid!" where neither the word God nor forbid are in a single Greek manuscript.

2. I'm looking at more serious errors and total "corruption" in the translation. Whole words or entire phrases were added (see Eph 2:1) that have no support in the original Greek.

Now, the AV1611 baby-baptizing Anglicans who translated it often added some words (and put them in italics for which I commend them) BUT not one of them is in the original. So they added man-made words that NOW SOME CLAIM FULL INSPIRATION.

That was the implication I'm making. Man's words, no Greek, added in and now claimed to be "inspired".
 
Top