Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
Directly responded to your post. If you don't want a response to your post don't post.Is this post on topic, or is it an unnecessary post changing the subject to me.
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Directly responded to your post. If you don't want a response to your post don't post.Is this post on topic, or is it an unnecessary post changing the subject to me.
I did.How do you get that from what I said? You don't.
That Greek word is only used in that verse once in the whole New Testament. It means He is that redemption for each individual.. . . and 1 Timothy 2:6 . . . .
Yeah and it doesn't say what you said.Everyone knows what it says and no amount of obfuscation will change one word of it. Just read it folks.
That is not what that word means.I did.
That Greek word is only used in that verse once in the whole New Testament. It means He is that redemption for each individual.
Propitiation is a sacrifice or offering that turns away wrath or anger. Christ is indeed the propitiation for our sins. He has recconciled His people to God (2 Corinthians 5:18-19).LOL, lets count the unblible or biblically illiterate claims
Christ does not provide the means of reconciliation. Propitiation provides the means of reconciliation and Christ is our propitiation.
Perhaps that was because it was necessaryOTE]The unnecessary comment was not deleted.
Actually, yep.Does John 6:39 teach limited atonement (renamed definite atonement for the purpose of obfuscation)? Nope
Perhaps you might consider explaining yourself better then.And you are the one systemically misrepresenting my views, and you seem unable to stop.
The word is in the singlar. As a ramsom in place of an individual on behalf of all. You provided nothing except denial.That is not what that word means.
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