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2011 NIV Is Praised

Ruiz

New Member
No thank you. I will not support this not because I have reviewed the NIV and don't like it but because the parent company lied to Christians, broke their promise, and was very deceptive in how they did all this.

There are great translations out there and I do expect a company producing Bibles to not lie, break promises, and be deceptive to a vast amount of Christian scholars and leaders.
 

Mexdeaf

New Member
It's okay NOT to love a particular version, but it is distressing when the only reasons given for it are reasons that have absolutely nothing to do with the translation itself.

The wheel has been reinvented and will continue to be until the Lord returns, and Ruiz' complaints could be leveled against other versions also. How about adding some substance if you want to list negatives of a particular translation.

I daresay that if Rippon posted a thread entitled, "KJV is praised" some of you would find something bad to say just because he posted it. It's NOT supposed to be "tit for tat", folks.
 

Ruiz

New Member
Mexdeaf

I have not reviewed it. However, my reasons are simply that the people who are putting it out were immoral in how they went about the process of this and the previous translation.

I do believe character counts in this matter.
 
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tinytim

<img src =/tim2.jpg>
How much is the NIV 2011 like the TNIV. I LOVE the TNIV. But don't want to spend a lot of money for the 2011 if they are close.
 

Baptist4life

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Don't care for:

The 1978 NIV

The 1984 NIV

The TNIV

so I doubt I'd like the "new" NIV

but that's just my personal preference. Don't understand why, since 1978, there needs to have been FOUR NIV translations. Don't think "language" has changed FOUR different times in 33 years.

Antiquated language. Isn't that the "reason" people use for all the new versions?


It's getting a little ridiculous to me.
 
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milby

Member
Mexdeaf

I have not reviewed it. However, my reasons are simply that the people who are putting it out were immoral in how they went about the process of this and the previous translation.

I do believe character counts in this matter.

Will you please elaborate on this. I have no idea what you are talking about?
 

Mexdeaf

New Member
Don't care for:

The 1978 NIV

The 1984 NIV

The TNIV

so I doubt I'd like the "new" NIV

but that's just my personal preference. Don't understand why, since 1978, there needs to have been FOUR NIV translations. Don't think "language" has changed FOUR different times in 33 years.

Antiquated language. Isn't that the "reason" people use for all the new versions?


It's getting a little ridiculous to me.

Let's see, how many revisions of the KJV were there during the first 30 years of it's existence? Check that out and get back to me if you still have complaints.
 

Jerome

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter

Oops.

Here is why they like it so much:

In some passages of great theological significance, a significant improvement can genuinely assist the reader in grasping the truth of God’s Word. . . .we might point to Romans 3:23-24, so crucial to our understanding of justification:

NIV84
Ro 3:23-24 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.

New NIV
Ro 3:23-24 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.

The addition of the little word “all” is significant, since it clarifies Paul’s intended meaning: God has declared all guilty sinners not guilty by his gracious, saving work in Christ Jesus.
http://www.wels.net/sites/wels/files/BORAM2011_supplemental_translationevaluationcommittee.pdf

Is that why you like it too, Rippon? :)
 

InTheLight

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Don't care for:

The 1978 NIV

The 1984 NIV

The TNIV

so I doubt I'd like the "new" NIV

but that's just my personal preference. Don't understand why, since 1978, there needs to have been FOUR NIV translations.

Could this be the reason?:

2afwgue.gif




Don't think "language" has changed FOUR different times in 33 years.

Antiquated language. Isn't that the "reason" people use for all the new versions?


It's getting a little ridiculous to me.

I have a copy of the NIV Study Bible which I consult now and again, but I've got to agree with you on this point. How can the language change significantly four times in 33 years?
 

Rippon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Oops.

Here is why they like it so much:


http://www.wels.net/sites/wels/files/BORAM2011_supplemental_translationevaluationcommittee.pdf

Is that why you like it too, Rippon? :)

"for all have sinned and fall short of the golry of God,and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus." (2011 NIV)

I do not agree with the wels interpretation of the 2011 rendereing.

The first "all" in verse 23 is entirely universal in scope. However, the second "all" in verse 24 cannot be universalistic. All have not been justified or else everyone is going to glory.

The 2011 wording is the same as the TNIV rendering. It's not one of my favorites in the 2011 NIV. It can cause some confusion.
 

Rippon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I have a copy of the NIV Study Bible which I consult now and again, but I've got to agree with you on this point. How can the language change significantly four times in 33 years?

It's not just that language changes significantly every 8.25 years --but discoveries are made and other advances are implemented. It's good to have a well-honed translation rather than stay stuck in the mud and rejoice in one's entrenched traditions.
 

Rippon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
How much is the NIV 2011 like the TNIV. I LOVE the TNIV. But don't want to spend a lot of money for the 2011 if they are close.

According John Dyer's research the 2011 NIV is 91.47% the same as the TNIV.

Per Robert Slowley the two are in agreement 91.9% of the time.
 

franklinmonroe

Active Member
... The first "all" in verse 23 is entirely universal in scope. However, the second "all" in verse 24 cannot be universalistic. All have not been justified or else everyone is going to glory. ...
All that have sinned indeed have come short (the entire human race, minus One), and all that are indeed justified are only justified by grace through Jesus Christ. Or to say it another way, every justified person that comes to redemption through Christ Jesus was once a sinner. This 'new' NIV rendering isn't really a problem.

In context, it is perfectly clear that the "all" is speaking of all categories, types, or kinds of believers --
21 But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. 22 This righteousness is given through faith in[h] Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile, 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. 25 God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26 he did it to demonstrate his righteousness at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.
The "all" from v.22 is still the "all" in the first part of v.23 which is an implied "all" in v.24; that is, it is the same group of believers from v.22 through v.24. Paul's line of argumentation here is that the Gentile and the Jew ("all") were lost, then saved in the same way. I imagine that it was at least as shocking to the Jews that they were as lost in sin as Gentiles, as was the sheer idea that God would save Gentiles! Ironically, v.23 is often used to explain to an unsaved person that every one is a sinner (which they are, but not precisely what this verse states in context).
 
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