(Eph 4:13) Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ:
I’m leaving most of my opinions out of this to simply find out what others here think:
#1 What does “onto the perfect man” refer to, “glorification”? If so, do you believe a Christian can reach glorification while alive, meaning alive in the flesh? Part 2: Is Paul suggesting this has already happened in Rom 8:20, and/or when?
#2 I’m having trouble wording this question, but: In the 1689 London Baptist Faith Confession, Of Free Will, chapter 9:5, concerning free will it says:
If glorification can be achieved in this life what does the Calvinist believe about his free will at this point? Meaning while alive is he really in a state of free will and only able to do good at this point, is it that he has reached a state where he freely decides to only do good, truly of his own free will? Or is this speaking of the point at which he is permanently transformed to only be able to make one choice, because that doesn’t sound like free will to me if one has been ‘transformed’ to the point where he can’t make any other choice?
#3 Is Ephesians 4:13 even a good, in context, proof text for #5?
I’m leaving most of my opinions out of this to simply find out what others here think:
#1 What does “onto the perfect man” refer to, “glorification”? If so, do you believe a Christian can reach glorification while alive, meaning alive in the flesh? Part 2: Is Paul suggesting this has already happened in Rom 8:20, and/or when?
#2 I’m having trouble wording this question, but: In the 1689 London Baptist Faith Confession, Of Free Will, chapter 9:5, concerning free will it says:
5._____ This will of man is made perfectly and immutably free to good alone in the state of glory only. (Ephesians 4:13 )
If glorification can be achieved in this life what does the Calvinist believe about his free will at this point? Meaning while alive is he really in a state of free will and only able to do good at this point, is it that he has reached a state where he freely decides to only do good, truly of his own free will? Or is this speaking of the point at which he is permanently transformed to only be able to make one choice, because that doesn’t sound like free will to me if one has been ‘transformed’ to the point where he can’t make any other choice?
#3 Is Ephesians 4:13 even a good, in context, proof text for #5?