Dr. Walter
New Member
dw
Until you deal with post 133 with scripture, you are shown a liar..I am not going to explain nothing else to you, until you prove your comment,which post 133 refers to.
Would you please point out the post that you took that comment from? I cannot find it and I have searched the last three of my posts before your #133 post.
Are you suggesting that this particular quote contradicts my repeated distinction between the metaphorical and literal distinction of "seed" that has characterized my past six or seven posts???? You are asking me to prove that statment by scritpures as though I do not believe the phrase "seed of Abraham" has two distinct applications?
I believe that you have already proven it is used in the PHYSICAL sense to ethnic Israel. You have offered no historical evidence that it is used in a PHSYICAL sense for Gentile elect from all nations? Wonder why you can't provide any historical evidence? Is it because there is none? If so, then you have also proven that in the PHYSICAL sense the phrase "seed of Abraham" is never used except for ethnic Israel in scriptures.
Since we both agree it is used for PHYSICAL "seed of Abraham" it seems you are the one that must prove that Abraham is the PHYSICAL "father" of all gentile nations from which Gentile elect come from in order to prove that the "seed of Abraham" is ever used of Gentile elect in a PHYSICAL sense.
You cannot do that and that is precisely why you are asking me to prove that in the PHYSICAL sense it is only used of ethnic Israel. I have offered proof that Abraham's Physical seed never produced the negroid nations or the slavic nations, the germanic nations, or even all the Semetic nations. Hence, that is proof you are wrong and that is proof that the PHYSICAL sense of "seed of Abraham" is never used in the scriptures for any other people then the ethnic nation of Israel - deal with it.