Originally posted by BobRyan:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Bill said --
Yes, but what of all this, Bob? Most of this can also be seen in the didache, which I think I will quote a portion of it here:
Didache 7:1 But concerning baptism, thus shall ye baptize. Having first recited all these things, baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit in living (running) water.
Didache 7:2 But if thou hast not living (running) water, then baptize in other water;
and if thou art not able in cold, then in warm.
Didache 7:3 But if thou hast neither, then pour water on the head thrice in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.
Didache 7:4 But before the baptism let him that baptizeth and him that is baptized fast, and any others also who are able; and thou shalt order him that is baptized to fast a day or two before.
Clearly the order of precidence is baptism IN a cold river - where the water is running.
The next still water - if that is not available.
And if neither is available then and only then is pouring even "allowed".
Furthermore - fasting is "required" of the participant in all cases by "ordering him to fast".</font>[/QUOTE]Bob, listen to me reeeeeeeeeeal closely now. While it is true that in those early times, immersion was the prefered method, is not pouring still a valid method, YES or NO?
As for fasting, it is an embellishment attached to baptism, just as the use of holy oils is and embellishment, which also means that later on in history, those embellishements can be modified, Bob. Get it yet?
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> Bob said --
Again - Bill the Didach is NOT showing a preference for sprinkling OR for infant baptism as we have today.
Yet incredibly - Bill ignores the "details" in his OWN quote and pointing to one sliver that says any word at all that can be construed in favor of tradition (provided that the reader is not conscious while going over the entire quote that Bill gives) he says --</font>[/QUOTE]No, the didache speaks nothing of infant baptism, which is another issue, for which I have provided reference from the early fathers for it's practice, which I will give to you once more:
http://www.cin.org/users/jgallegos/infant.htm
Bob, one more time: In those early times, baptism by "running" (living) water was the preferred method of baptism. The
didache makes no demands, decrees, but simply lists the ways to baptise in a listing to the most preferred to what is still acceptable - and valid, I might add.
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> Bill said --
It is showing the alternate of baptism by pouring,
Indeed it shows that it is ONLY allowed in extreme cases where all other means have failed and even THEN - with fasting of the participant who is "ordered" to fast.</font>[/QUOTE]It shows nothing of the kind! "Extreme" case? It simply says that if running water is not available, in sufficient quantities, then there is the alternative of pouring on of the water. It also means that baptizing by a pouring on of the water is acceptable and thus a valid method.
See the link above one more time...
Also, what of the jailer's family, who were baptized with the jailer by Paul had small children or infants, Bob?
No preference for pouring.
No, but the alternative form, which is still valid. Bob, we both know the preferred way in those times, as given by the didache, don't we?
Bob, say after me as often as it takes for it to sink in -
Pouring on of water is a valid method of baptism per the didache.
Got it yet?
Bob said -- Rather it shows the "opposite" - it shows that immersion is mandatory and ONLY in cases where it is impossible to immerse due to lack of water - COULD you be justified in using "less water".
Yet Bill blindly ignores the details of his OWN quote and insists ..
<Sigh!> "Insists" that baptism by a pouring on of water is a valid method? Yeppers!
And how many times have I said this so far.....?
Bill said --
I see nothing mandatory about baptism by immersion in the didache. Now, there is no doubt that it seems to be the preferred method in those days, but it is not mandatory as we see the alternative method, which the Church has now adopted as the preferable way today.
Notice that even your OWN quote does not says "CONSIDER using running cold water - BUT if you prefer not to then consider standing water and if you do not PREFER that then maybe you will like to pour water".[/quote]
Bob, is a pouring on of water a valid method of baptism, YES or NO?
But indeed, you do see the trend away form the more primitive forms of baptism per the didache, and the now prevailing way of pouring on of the water, but does that change of preference make that method invalid?
Actually, the bible does not give details as to how to baptize, other then the proper words to say as we see in Matthew 28:19, but the precise method of applying the water is not given at all. Jesus went down into the Jordan to be baptized by John. did John dunk Jesus totally in the Jordon to baptize him, Bob? We don't know!
And I believe, seriously believe, that John merely took a a cup, filled it with water and as Jesus stood knee deep in the Jordan, John poured the water over his head!
How does that grab you, Bob?
Instead of such a tortured interpretation of your OWN quote consider what it actually says.
It commands the first method - without equivocation Having first recited all these things, baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit in living (running) water.
Yes, the preferred method in those early times. In fact, it can even be said that all priests and bishops were to perform baptism in this ranking of precidence.
But since it is allowable that when such quantities of water, be it running or not, is NOT available, baptism by pouring was allowed.
If so, is it a valid method of baptism, Bob, YES or NO!
Then instead of citing "PREFERENCE" as the "basis" for ignoring the first command - it defines 'necessity' saying "IF You do not have " access to the conditions described in the command THEN and only then...
Didache 7:2 But if thou hast not living (running) water, then baptize in other water;
and if thou art not able in cold, then in warm.
And FINALLY if you are not ABLE to do as commanded THEN the next level alternative is permitted.
You have stood your own quote on its head to get "your recent traditions" defended -
Bob, I agree that baptism by total immersion in a running stream of water is possibly the standard method, IF available. But we don't even know that! The Eunich went down to the river to be baptized. Was he dunked totally and completely in the water, Bob? Does scripture say?
But lets again see what the didache says:
But concerning baptism, thus shall ye baptize. Having first recited all these things, baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit in living (running) water. Didache 7:2 But if thou hast not living water, then baptize in other water; and if thou art not able in cold, then in warm. Didache 7:3 But if thou hast neither, then pour water on the head thrice in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit. Didache 7:4 But before the baptism let him that baptizeth and him that is baptized fast, and any others also who are able; and thou shalt order him that is baptized to fast a day or two before.
You know,on second read, I don't even see a total dunking in total immersion even mentioned!
I would agree that it is implied, but it is not specified. All it says is running (living) water, or water that is not living (running). And if neither is available, presumably in quantities sufficient for a normal method of baptism, a pouring on of the water is appropriate and acceptable.
Time and time again - RC source when quoted from the most ancient ones - are opposed to the errors introduced by the RCC in later centuries and this is a shining example Bill. You are forced into denying the "details" of your own quote.
Bob, one more time, is baptism by a pouring of on the water a valid method of baptism, YES or NO?
Do you have "running" (living) water running through your church (knowing that some denominations do indeed, go to a stream, river or even a pond, swimming pool, etc. where water is not "living" as specified in all cases.) Fine and dandy. I do not object to that method of baptism, not at all!
But you must admit that a baptism by a pouring on of the water is admissable, especially today where "living" water is a bit scarce, inaccessable, inconvenient, and like it was for Paul and most likely the jailer's fammily, baptism by a pouring of of the water was most probably performed.
God bless,
PAX
Bill+†+
"…Noah during the building of the ark, in which a few persons, eight in all, were saved through water. This prefigured baptism which saves you now…"
1 Peter 3:20-21