Now I have time to look at this link. And here is what it has as a definition for parousia:
Now I see where you got the "Strong's definition." That alone brands the writer of this definition as someone who either doesn't know Greek or only knows enough to get him into trouble. If I taught Greek in America instead of Japan I'd tell my students never, ever to use Strong's. :smilewinkgrin: It's way out of date, written well over 100 years ago, before all of the papyri were discovered that we have today to consult.
This is a very poor definition. The word does not mean literally "abiding presence." The mistake this author makes is called by D. A. Carson the "root fallacy" in his excellent book, Exegetical Fallacies. Here is what Carson says: "One of the most enduring of errors, the root fallacy pre-supposes that every word actually has a meaning bound up with its shape or its components. In this view, meaning is determined by etymology; that is, by the root or roots of a word" (p. 26).
The normal way to determine a word's meaning is by it's common usage, and I have done that with parousia, proving that every single Biblical usage of people other than Christ involved a literal appearance. Therefore, the parousia of Christ is also a literal presence, a literal and physical 2nd coming.
Since I have had no Greek I will not push this point. however I will note that men much more studied than you and I combined have referred to the parousia of Matthew 24 as a non physical event. Men such as Gill, Barnes, Lightfoot, Clarke, Sproul , Henry and many others who are not full preterist see it as a non physical coming of Christ.