Once more a copy and paste argument, of great length has been posted to hide the obvious.
Only because there was no response to the original post.
1) Does "salvation + en" indicate the preposition modifies the noun salvation or the verb chosen? The verb!
Both
humas and
soterian are found in the accusative case showing that both indicate termination of the action of the verb
eileto. One is the direct object and the other is the indirect object. The preposition
eis is a directive/movement preposition as it carries action toward something which in this case finds the termination of that action in the accusative case
soterian which is also the case of termination of action. In contrast
en is not a directive preposition but speaks more of position/location/sphere/means/instrumental and thus naturally would go with the dative case
hagio. Both
pistei and
alethia are Feminine, the former is dative case (again agreeing more with the preposition "en" as position/location/sphere/means) while the latter is gentive case. So, the most natural reading is that "eis soterian" terminates the action of "eleto" IN ETERNITY PAST (from the beginning) concerning "humas" whereas, "en hagio....kai ...pistei" - dative nouns) is further explanatory of
soterian demonstrating the sphere or means by which salvation IN TIME(sphere/means) is administrated.
2) What is the direct object of the verb chosen? "You" as the person affected, and "salvation" as the thing effected. But how were we chosen? By being set apart in Christ, the sanctification by the Spirit. And on what basis were we chosen? God crediting our faith as righteousness.
We have two different actors ("God" and the "holy Spirit") with two different actions. The first Actor does his work BEFORE TIME ("from the beginning") or as Paul says elsewhere "before the foundation of the world." The Father acts BEFORE TIME choosing them "in him" (Eph. 1:4) but the Holy Spirit's act occurs IN TIME (sphere and means "en") which is setting the chosen apart and belief of the truth as this actor and action necessarily is performed IN TIME. Hence, you are confusing the Actors and their actions and the time of their actions. The act of choosing them "in him" is not the work of the Holy Spirit IN TIME but the work of the Father BEFORE TIME. It is IN TIME that the Holy Spirit sets apart those chosen by the father as it is IN TIME they belief the truth.
So, you are reversing the works and the workers in order to support your view when the text will not support your reversal.
3) Your time travel theology, where we were chosen through faith before creation is without merit.
False for several reasons. First, there is no time before creation as time is a measurement of created things and we were chosen "before the foundation of the world" and thus "from the beginning" already chosen before time began. Second, you are again confusing the two workers and their works. You are attributing the work IN TIME with the work BEFORE TIME and thus confusing the work of the Father with the work of the Holy Spirit. We are "saved by grace through faith" IN TIME but not before time and that is the work of the Holy Spirit not the work of the Father.
4) The "effectual call" is one of your fictions, and is no where found in scripture.
. No, it is the Biblical text. "wherefore" points back to just what was said about "belief in the truth" as that is connected with "called by our gospel." Second, it is effectual "to the OBTAINING of glory" not merely the POSSIBLE PROSPECT of obtaining glory.
5) Being saved by grace through faith means our faith existed before we were chosen for salvation. Otherwise faith does not provide the access, which it does.
The grammar repudiates your assertion that the faith existed before we were chosen. The text uses the perfect tense verb translated "saved" which points to an already completed action (which in context refers to being quickened - vv. 1-5, 10 "created in Christ") and says that action was completed "through faith" thus making faith inseparable from that action and contained within that action or else it would not be a completed action at all. If you have arrived at the other side of a mountain going "through a tunnel" then going through the tunnel is inseparable from arriving at the other side of the mountain or else you have not arrived. Get the point - that is what the Greek perfect is yelling at you!
6) Ephesians 2:8 indicates salvation is the gift through faith, not salvation and faith are the gift. Pay no attention to this bogus interpretation
Your right, nobody should pay attention to your bogus interpretation as it has nothing to support but is directly contradicted by the context and grammar. Again, going "through" a tunnel is part of, and inseparable from the action of arriving on the other side of the mountain IF that arrival is said to be "through that tunnel." Likewise, "faith" is inseparable from the completed action of "saved"" as that action cannot be completed unless "through faith" is included in being "saved" (quickened, created in Christ).
7) Wallace agrees the gift is not faith but salvation by grace.
Wrong! I quoted verbatum what he said and he said that "saved-through-faith" is the gift just as the perfect tense tunnel analogy demands.
Please do not waste more electrons regurgitating the same debunked arguments over and over. And please do not sprinkle more magic grammar dust over verse after verse to make them say what they do not say.
That is precisely the advice you should follow concerning your error after errors that are grammatical wrong and proven wrong.