As Briguy says take the verses one at a time. First thing to note is that baptism always occurs after salvation, never before. It is an act of obedience after one is saved, and has nothing to do with salvation. Now concerning the first verse you mentioned in your list, a particularly difficult verse for many to understand, here is the meaning:
Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
--“Be baptized…for the remission of sinsâ€
baptized . . . for the remission of sins--as the visible seal of that remission. (Jamieson, Faucett, and Brown)
Acts 2:38 And Peter said unto them, Repent ye, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ unto (eis) the remission of your sins; and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. (ASV)
Matthew 3:11 I indeed baptize you with water unto (eis) repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:
The same Greek word is used in both verses translated “unto.â€
Baptize(d) unto repentance/remission
Did John baptize the Pharisees or Jews so that they would receive repentance, or because they had repented? “Unto repentance.†The answer is obvious. Go back and read the full text. Bring fruit meet (fit) for repentance. He would not baptize them unless he saw evidence of repentance. It was because they had repented that he baptized. The word “unto†or “eis†therefore has a meaning “because of,†that is, “I baptize you…because of your repentance.
In the same way “unto†or eis is used in Acts 2:38, “Repent and be baptized “because of†the remission of your sins. Baptism never results in the remission of sins, but is always given after a persons sins has already been remitted by Christ.
Thus the meaning is clear in Acts 2:38. The baptism has nothing to do with salvation. One is baptized as a result of repentance. He was baptized because he had repented, just as John baptized those who repented. He baptized "because of" the remission of sins, or because their sins had already been remitted or forgiven.
DHK
Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
--“Be baptized…for the remission of sinsâ€
baptized . . . for the remission of sins--as the visible seal of that remission. (Jamieson, Faucett, and Brown)
Acts 2:38 And Peter said unto them, Repent ye, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ unto (eis) the remission of your sins; and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. (ASV)
Matthew 3:11 I indeed baptize you with water unto (eis) repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:
The same Greek word is used in both verses translated “unto.â€
Baptize(d) unto repentance/remission
Did John baptize the Pharisees or Jews so that they would receive repentance, or because they had repented? “Unto repentance.†The answer is obvious. Go back and read the full text. Bring fruit meet (fit) for repentance. He would not baptize them unless he saw evidence of repentance. It was because they had repented that he baptized. The word “unto†or “eis†therefore has a meaning “because of,†that is, “I baptize you…because of your repentance.
In the same way “unto†or eis is used in Acts 2:38, “Repent and be baptized “because of†the remission of your sins. Baptism never results in the remission of sins, but is always given after a persons sins has already been remitted by Christ.
Thus the meaning is clear in Acts 2:38. The baptism has nothing to do with salvation. One is baptized as a result of repentance. He was baptized because he had repented, just as John baptized those who repented. He baptized "because of" the remission of sins, or because their sins had already been remitted or forgiven.
DHK