Originally posted by John Gilmore:
Tell me, is it essentially or necessarily a non-sequitur?
Yes.
Faith does not trump baptism. Baptism is the instrument through which faith is obtained. Can faith be obtained by those who reject baptism? No. Therefore baptism is necessary for salvation.
So, you cannot have faith without baptism? Painted-corner what?
I'll let the rest of the people on the board correct you on this one.
I would agree with equation X. Baptism is the means whereby we obtain faith. And the faith of Christ saves us through baptism. And baptism saves us through faith.
Well, first of all, it is grace that saves us, through faith.
Secondly, where does it say that baptism saves us through faith?
I would not agree with equation Y. Baptism does not produce unbelief. If someone believes that baptism saves without faith, that belief was not generated by their baptism.
I think you need to take a math class.
Baptism - Faith = Damnation does not say baptism produces unbelief. What is says, in conjunction with the first equation, is that faith is the lynchpin. Without faith, we cannot be saved. But, of course you would see this if you read the post closely.
Faith does not come without the Word (Romans 10:17). When Christ says salvation comes through baptism, He is saying that baptism is a form of the Word. Can a person reject baptism and thereby reject the Word and have faith? No. Can a person receive faith through preaching? Yes (1 Cor. 1:21).
Where does it say that a person cannot reject baptism? I am curious. Because we are explicitly told that if we have no belief, we are damned. But we are not told that if we have no baptism that we are damned. You are presuming that. Yes you are. Stop shaking your head. Yup...you are.
jason