Jesus. "Therefore everyone who confesses Me before men, I will also confess him before My Father who is in heaven." Matthew 10:32.Who says it has to be public?
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Jesus. "Therefore everyone who confesses Me before men, I will also confess him before My Father who is in heaven." Matthew 10:32.Who says it has to be public?
Jesus. "Therefore everyone who confesses Me before men, I will also confess him before My Father who is in heaven." Matthew 10:32.
You don't need to confess with your mouth to God. All you have to do is think something and He hears it.Yes but are those the same confession - at the same moment? Do you need to confess in public to be saved or confess with your mouth to God?
Just "something"?You don't need to confess with your mouth to God. All you have to do is think something and He hears it.
Just "something"?
Yes, I agree, and it should be a public profession, i.e., within the hearing of someone else. If it's not public, then there is no need for it to be audible.Agreed! But, what does Romans 10:9-10 say?
Doesn't it say something about confess with the mouth?
Doesn't it also say something about Jesus as Lord?
Seems to me that is a bit "audible", is it not.
Now Hannah, she spake in her heart; only her lips moved, but her voice was not heard: therefore Eli thought she had been drunken. (1 Samuel 1:13)Yes, I agree, and it should be a public profession, i.e., within the hearing of someone else. If it's not public, then there is no need for it to be audible.
But wait! An audible public profession would be a work and and we need to avoid those works at all cost.![]()
No, quite the contrary. Go back and read my Post #143 (to which you made a snarky reply). I just agree with SMM that "confess with your mouth" sure sounds like doing something audible. Also, you have to read this passage in light of Matthew 10:32.Now Hannah, she spake in her heart; only her lips moved, but her voice was not heard: therefore Eli thought she had been drunken. (1 Samuel 1:13)
I suppose, according to you, God could not hear Hannah's prayer, even though we know God answered it and gave Hannah a baby boy--Samuel.
The light of Matthew 10:32 should be taken in the light of the context, as in verse 24:No, quite the contrary. Go back and read my Post #143 (to which you made a snarky reply). I just agree with SMM that "confess with your mouth" sure sounds like doing something audible. Also, you have to read this passage in light of Matthew 10:32.
Apparently not, unless you think one can be saved without receiving the Holy Spirit. The group in Acts 19 did not receive the H.S. until Paul had baptized them and laid hands on them.Yet all of these that he baptized were saved already.
Apparently not, unless you think one can be saved without receiving the Holy Spirit. The group in Acts 19 did not receive the H.S. until Paul had baptized them and laid hands on them.
Well, you see, if baptism was a requirement for salvation, it would not be missing from the verses that do not include it. So we need to understand the context of all of the Scriptures. Baptism is an obedience after salvation - not a requirement for.
Yet we see in Acts 8, they were baptized but had not yet received the Holy Spirit.
Then we see in Acts 10, the Gentiles received the Holy Spirit but were not yet baptized.
So receiving the Holy Spirit and being baptized are two separate things that sometimes occurred together, sometimes one preceeded the other.
I'm going to try to turn this thread back to the reason Waterman posted it. First, Waterman, you say you belong to the church of Christ. That is how you registered for this board and what you said in Posts No. 78 and 98. Yet your church's website says "Church of Christ" every time the term is used there. How come?
Well, you see, if baptism was a requirement for salvation, it would not be missing from the verses that do not include it...
No, that is the COC indoctrination that you have received that is contrary to the Scriptures.I believe that the reception of the Holy Spirit as shown in the above verses had nothing whatsoever to do with the salvation of those involved. In Acts 8, the people Phillip had preached to had heard the word, believed it, and were baptized. Now, we don't read that they had made confession of Jesus being the Son of God, nor of their repentance, but I believe it is safe to infer that these things had been done, since there are other commands/examples where those actions were explicitly included in the text, and since all men are saved in the same way under the New Testament.
...That is, *if* Water Immersion Baptism were essential for Salvation, especially to the extreme it would require Our Heavenly Father to exclude one of us, then He would have ensured that *every* text talking about Salvation included Water Baptism. They don't, so it isn't!