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Accomplished Redemption

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Once again, obviously false doctrine is copy and pasted as a thread starter.

Does Hebrews 9:12 say when Jesus died, shedding His own blood, He obtained the redemption of every individual that He would redeem? Nope

Does Hebrews 9:12 say when Jesus died, He obtained the power to redeem every individual God would give to Him? Yes

Does John 19:30 say what was finished, the redemption of specific individuals, or the sacrifice enabling the redemption of everyone God would give to Christ? No.

Is it a "perversion of the Gospel" to present the opportunity for future redemption to all people? That is the thread's claim. It is false doctrine.
 

KenH

Well-Known Member
Is it a "perversion of the Gospel" to present the opportunity for future redemption to all people? That is the thread's claim. It is false doctrine.

The gospel of Christ is to be preached throughout the world; preached as a finished, completed work, and NOT as a partial, incomplete work.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The gospel of Christ is to be preached throughout the world; preached as a finished, completed work, and NOT as a partial, incomplete work.
Did anyone, other than KenH, suggest the work of Christ was not finished, completed and NOT incomplete?

To preach that the lost have the opportunity for salvation by grace through faith is NOT a perversion!
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
Once again, obviously false doctrine is copy and pasted as a thread starter.

Does Hebrews 9:12 say when Jesus died, shedding His own blood, He obtained the redemption of every individual that He would redeem? Nope

Does Hebrews 9:12 say when Jesus died, He obtained the power to redeem every individual God would give to Him? Yes

Does John 19:30 say what was finished, the redemption of specific individuals, or the sacrifice enabling the redemption of everyone God would give to Christ? No.

Is it a "perversion of the Gospel" to present the opportunity for future redemption to all people? That is the thread's claim. It is false doctrine.
Jesus Himself stated that he came to give his life for the sake of the many
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Jesus Himself stated that he came to give his life for the sake of the many
Once again we have a false claim.

From Romans 5:15 we know that "the many" died but the gift of grace was made available to "the many." Since all the descendants of Adam spiritually died, "the many" refers to all humanity.

From Romans 5:19 we know that "the many" were made sinners. And since we all have fallen short of the glory of God, we are all sinners. So again, "the many" refers to all of humanity.

From 1 Corinthians 10:33 we know that Paul sought to please anyone everyone so that they may be saved.

And from 2 Corinthians 5:15 we know that Christ died for all.
 
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