I understand your assumption, but was the whole of the New Testament written in 1st century, AD?
If your assumption is true, then why don't we still speak in that "Koine Greek"?
I don’t know.
Wouldn't it remain the language of life and not meeting the demands of men in their attempt to change words that conclude into a state of confusion about what the Word of God actually says?
Obviously not, so I deal with the present reality and attempt to translate the “koine” Greek into “koine” English.
Thank God for the KJB, that which is tried and true, no matter what devices are applied, we can still deduce what God has said, instead of continual pondersings of, "I wonder if by this mss, if that was really what God meant?"
I prefer
the methods and sources of the KJ Bible translators, take the “tried and true” original language texts along with previous translations and come up with a new standard text. That new standard text however has modernly become outdated.
By insisting on this outdated text, all you have done is left up to and accepted these “ponderings” of Anglo-Roman Catholic priests from 4 centuries ago whose methods and sources were good (although (IMO)the translation itself was somewhat lacking) but has now seriously fallen behind in its archaisms.
Indeed they acknowledged the alleged "ponderings" by publishing many of them in the margin of the 1611 First Edition.
BTW, what happened to your "next"?
In my estimation, you never did justice to my “first”. From your answer(s), I still don’t know what the 1 Chronicles 26:12-19 passage in the KJ Bible is saying, particularly the last 4 verses.
1 Chronicles 26
16 To Shuppim and Hosah the lot came forth westward, with the gate Shallecheth, by the causeway of the going up, ward against ward.
17 Eastward were six Levites, northward four a day, southward four a day, and toward Asuppim two and two.
18 At Parbar westward, four at the causeway, and two at Parbar.
19 These are the divisions of the porters among the sons of Kore, and among the sons of Merari.
HankD