Acts 12:4 should say "Easter" and here's why:

Let us look at the Passover in the light of Scripture(AV). We see that AFTER the Passover comes the Feasts of Unleavened Bread;which the Passover SACRIFICE must occur:

Matthew 26:17 "Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover? "

Which goes with:
Luke 22:1, "Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover. "

Which has everything to do with:
"Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed. " The Passover LAMB must be killed! A sacrifice must occur during the feast of unleavened bread!This sacrifice is called the Passover Lamb .

Which has EVERYTHING to do with the Lamb without spot or blemish: Mark 14:12 "And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover? " My Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ was crucified AFTER Passover,during the feast of unleavened bread.

Now in light of Scripture (AV),we see that the Pagan Herod did not observe Passover,but instead Easter(Ishtar). If Passover is correct,then Peter would have been in the pokey a whole year. The KJB is correct.

Really Take MVN's advice,read and practice 2 Tim 2:15(AV)before you post. Passover is incorrect..

 

um, what's the term for making a fact out of a myth by saying it over and over?

KJBO state of the union address?

 

If we're biblically forbidden from adding to the Word, then, even if this is a well intended "correction", it's wrong to do so. Translations correcting translations is one thing. But translations correcting the original manuscripts implies that the original manuscripts were wrong.

 

Not if "Passover" can also mean the entire week, as has been repeatedly explained and repeatedly ignored.

 

And now we go full-circle, back to the second post in this thread: "Ah, so the Greek is wrong. Gotcha. "

Don't you get it? If Passover is incorrect, the Holy Spirit made a mistake. You can do all the faulty logical gymnastics you want, trying to explain how "Passover" can't mean the entire week as well as just the first day - but the fact remains that if you're right, the Holy Spirit was wrong. To me, the choice is obvious which is right and which is wrong.

 

Sorry Alexandra, but even in the Textus Receptus, on which the King James was based, the word is PASSOVER. While the origin for the word EASTER is not known for sure, the most likely candidates are:
EOSTRE: A Germanic goddess of spring.
EASTRE, The Anglo-Saxon name of a Teutonic goddess of spring and fertility.
To say that Luke, in the first century used the term EASTER in the Book of Acts is an imposibility.

 

No problem,but what about:

Or:

 

Again, much to do about nothing (imo).

Look at the context:

Acts 12
2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Herod saw that it pleased the Jews that he killed James.
Now he wanted to kill Peter to get more kudos.
But he wanted to wait until after the Passover which is evident by the semantic bond to “days of unleavened bread” in verse 3 which is known only to Judaism.

unleavened bread. :
106 azumos {ad'-zoo-mos}
Meaning: 1) unfermented, free from leaven or yeast 1a) of the unleavened loaves used in the paschal feast of the Jews.

Here are several NT passages in which “unleavened bread” and “Passover” are semantically bonded.

Matthew 26:17 Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?

Mark 14:1 After two days was the feast of the passover, and of unleavened bread: and the chief priests and the scribes sought how they might take him by craft, and put him to death.

Mark 14:12 And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover?

Luke 22:1 Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.

Luke 22:7 Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed.

1 Corinthians 5:7 Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:

Someone said that a certain old English dictionary uses “Easter” to indicate the Passover. The word “pascha” occurs 29 times in the NT and the KJV translators used "Passover" as the receptor word.
Why then didn’t they use the word “Easter” in the 28 other passages?

Why did the KJV translators change the original meaning of this word in
Acts 12:4 from “pascha-Passover” which is made evident of by the semantic bond to “unleavened bread” in the preceding verse?

Here is a guess: seeing that the Church of England was 99 and 44/100 percent Catholic at the time (apart from allegiance to the Pope) perhaps they needed an honorable mention of one of two of the most popular “holy days” of the Anglo-Catholic Calendar and liturgy.

I don’t enjoy pointing out the obvious weaknesses of the translators of the Traditional Text of the Holy Bible into our beloved King James Holy Bible (which is my Bible of choice and preference) but re-inspiration of the Scriptures from Hebrew/Greek to 1611 English is something which IMO steps out of the boundaries of that doctrine.

Not only that but it gives God’s authority to a Church which persecuted Baptists at the time of the translation and to this day ordains “priests” and celebrates “the Eucharist” and baptizes infants (among many other Church of Rome practices and ritual).

HankD

[ July 20, 2003, 08:19 AM: Message edited by: HankD ]

 

Amen and Amen Dr. Bob. Keep up the good work!!!
Murph