False dichotomy. To not have one would make Him 99.9% human. The fact He was able to even die physically shows His nature was affected by sin, else He would have been like Adam and unable to die pre-fall.
Was Christ born of a man?
Also, where is the answer to my earlier question? Why are you avoiding such an easy question like that?
Let's examine the word "dichotomy" that you are fond of using -- especially when someone disagrees with you.
A dichotomy is a set of two mutually exclusive, jointly exhaustive alternatives. Dichotomies are typically expressed with the words "either" and "or", like this: "Either the test is wrong or the program is wrong."
Are you not doing just this?
A false dichotomy is a dichotomy that is not jointly exhaustive (there are other alternatives), or that is not mutually exclusive (the alternatives overlap), or that is possibly neither. Note that the example given above is not mutually exclusive, since the test and the program could both be wrong. It's not jointly exhaustive either, since they could both be correct, but it could be a hardware error, a compiler error and so on.
And, you accuse me of this, but I am not presenting a false dichotomy. I am presenting ONE biblical doctrine that says that ALL HAVE SINNED. There is no "either" or a third position involved.
I am also saying that Christ did not have a sin nature. I am not bringing a dichotomy, false or otherwise to the debate. You are introducing one by attempting to refute my point.
On this issue, the Bible is clear. He was without sin -- period.
Sadly enough, you have also introduced another heretical position started by the Christadelphians. This same group dismisses Christ's deity and the Trinity. I am fairly sure that you would do neither, but in arguing the track you are arguing, you are treading in that direction, perhaps without even knowing it.
To have a sin nature means that Jesus would have to have had a fallen, defiled, and unholy nature. I fail to see how an unholy person can offer a holy sacrifice sufficient to please an infinitely holy God. Christ was completely holy, though a man.
Now, let's examine why it is that you think that in order for Christ to be fully human that you believe He needed to also have a sin nature. You are looking at Christ's humanity in context of fallen man. But, the Scriptures tell us that Christ is the "second Adam." Adam was not born with a sin nature as I expressed above. He was a free man -- the only (well, Eve also) one, and also the only man who could truly make the choice to sin or not. The rest of us are fallen creatures born into a fallen and cursed world. Christ was not born a fallen creature. He was born both fully human like Adam (not in Adam's image, Adam was in Christ's image!) and fully God, and as such, holy and perfect, without sin, just as the Scriptures express so very clearly.
When will you stop allowing your human logic to dictate your doctrines over and above the very specific revelation of God, above which we cannot argue with success?