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An empty God?

preachinjesus

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Before I comment I'd like to know where you're going with this. Please do us all a blessing and give us at least a short paragraph of where you want this to head.
 

exscentric

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Well, if this is an empty God that blesses me every day, I'm not sure I could stand the blessings from a full one :)
 

just-want-peace

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Well, if this is an empty God that blesses me every day, I'm not sure I could stand the blessings from a full one :)
Well spoken, exscentric , very well spoken!!!
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OldRegular

Well-Known Member
Originally posted by UZThD:
Phil 2:6-8.
I don't know what your point is but it defies Scripture and logic. If you are speaking of Jesus Christ the Apostle Paul tells us in Colossians 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
 

exscentric

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Of whatever He emptied himself of I guess.

Sorry, couldn't not do that.

Well, maybe I could have :)
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
Originally posted by UZThD:
Sorry for my vagueness. The text says "He emptied Himself." Of what?
I believe He simply laid aside for a time the Glory of the Godhead. In John 17:5 Jesus Christ prays: And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
 

UZThD

New Member
Originally posted by OldRegular:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by UZThD:
Sorry for my vagueness. The text says "He emptied Himself." Of what?
I believe He simply laid aside for a time the Glory of the Godhead. In John 17:5 Jesus Christ prays: And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was. </font>[/QUOTE]===


What IS that glory?

IF it were only that, how could He be genuinely wearied at Jacob's well or truly worried in Gethsemene or actually killed at Golgotha or ignorant of the time of His return?

If in the text 'ekenosen' simply refers to a laying aside of something, then why is that aorist seemingly qualified by the modal participal 'labon' ? Is the emptying not defined by a 'taking' rather than a 'giving up' ?
 

Paul33

New Member
He emptied hismself, not by giving up his divine attributes, but by taking on the form of a servant, that addition of a human nature, will, center of consciousness, body.
 

exscentric

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
uzthd posted "Is that how you exegete: "whatever" ?"

I posted "Of whatever He emptied himself of I guess.

Sorry, couldn't not do that.

Well, maybe I could have :)"

:) is a sidewise happppppyyyyy face which indicates a joooookkkkeeee!!!!!!!!!!
 

UZThD

New Member
Originally posted by Paul33:
He emptied hismself, not by giving up his divine attributes, but by taking on the form of a servant, that addition of a human nature, will, center of consciousness, body.
===

I agree. IMO, God did not empty Himself of anthing as:

1) lexically - that verb kenosis is elsewhere used by Paul metaphorically

2) contextually- here it is defined by a taking of something not a giving up of something and the Son still exists in the divine morphe

3) theologically- God is immutable

4) parallel passages as in Col 1 attribute to the Son even after the incarnation the omnipotence to hold the universe together
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
Theologically, the doctrine of the kenosis summarizes that Jesus gave up the "voluntary independent use of divine attributes" during His incarnation.

He was, of course, still 100% fully God. But in His humanity, He became for a little while lower than angels. He could/did use His divine attributes, but only through the power/working of God the Spirit, being in that way 100% man.
 

UZThD

New Member
Originally posted by Dr. Bob:
[QB] Theologically, the doctrine of the kenosis summarizes that Jesus gave up the "voluntary independent use of divine attributes" during His incarnation.

===

So, eg, the mind of God lost some knowledge? He who WAS perfect in that regard lost perection? Not according to Frame and Shedd and Grudem!


Do you think that Christ ,as true Man, has a human mind or not? If He has only the mind of God, how is He true Man?

If omniscience is not used, then the Son does not have the same knowledge of the Father.

So are there multiple minds in God each with its own level of knowledge IYO?
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
Huh? I gave the historic theological definition of kenosis. Assumed you knew that.

Christ has a "unique" mind - 100% God and 100% man. Just as He had a "unique" body and every facet of His incarnation.

It is not an either/or. It is unique.
 

UZThD

New Member
Originally posted by Dr. Bob:
[QB] Huh? I gave the historic theological definition of kenosis. Assumed you knew that.

===


Please provide your EVIDENCE that THE HISTORIC THEOLOGICAL DEFINITION of the kenosis is that the Son gave up the independent use of the attributes.
 

UZThD

New Member
Originally posted by Dr. Bob:
[QB].

Christ has a "unique" mind - 100% God and 100% man.

==

Help me to understand you : are saying that the mind of Christ is a mixture? God blends with Man...to form a new composite?
 
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