An Inconsistency??

[ktn4eg]

A skeptic friend of mine is convinced that there is an inconsistency between what John writes in John 3:16 ("For God so loved the world....)
and what he wrote in I John 2:15 ("Love not the world, neither the things that are in the world. If any man love the world, the love of the Father is not in him.")

I know that when rightly understood there are no inconsistencies in God's Word.

I've got some ideas about how these two verses ought to be understood, but I'd like to hear from my BB friends about how they would explain his reasoning that "If it was OK for God to love the world, then why is it not OK for us to love the world?"

 

[preachinjesus]

God's love is different than mankind's love.

The nature of the passages speaks about love differently. We do it all the time. I love my wife but I also love tacos. Do I love these two things the same? Definitely not. Same thing here. Your friend is being silly and trying to pick at Scripture when the context clearly shows a difference.

 

[donnA]

Jn 3:16 is God's love of the world, as in mankind.
1Jn 2:15 is us loving the world system, the world view, the worlds way of thought.
No inconsistency when you take all of scripture into acount.

 

[HankD]

Jn 3:16 is God's love of the world, as in mankind.
1Jn 2:15 is us loving the world system, the world view, the worlds way of thought.
No inconsistency when you take all of scripture into acount.

Exactly Donna.

John 3:16 looks at the "whosoevers" in this world.
1 John 2:15 looks at the "things" in this world.

HankD

 

[Jedi Knight]

Exactly Donna.

John 3:16 looks at the "whosoevers" in this world.
1 John 2:15 looks at the "things" in this world.

HankD

I triple that!:thumbs: