PASTOR MHG
New Member
I asked this the other day in the "william rant" and did not see an answer...
Please forgive me for jumping in late on this. I will be honest and say that you must be better men than I am if you are able to even understand what william is writing. It reads like a new language.
My question is this...
Please explain the difference between the two readings in question from an English perspective.
My knowledge of Greek is limited, (only one year)
but it seems to me that the translation in English in the KJ is not unacceptable even though it is dervied from the "wrong" Greek. It seems that in both varying readings we end up with a verb that is a "state of being."
Thanks for the help.
Max
Please forgive me for jumping in late on this. I will be honest and say that you must be better men than I am if you are able to even understand what william is writing. It reads like a new language.
My question is this...
Please explain the difference between the two readings in question from an English perspective.
My knowledge of Greek is limited, (only one year)
but it seems to me that the translation in English in the KJ is not unacceptable even though it is dervied from the "wrong" Greek. It seems that in both varying readings we end up with a verb that is a "state of being."
Thanks for the help.
Max