1. Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Any Thoughts on the T.N.I.V.

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by Roy1, Apr 14, 2005.

  1. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
    Administrator

    Joined:
    Mar 30, 2005
    Messages:
    20,080
    Likes Received:
    3,491
    Faith:
    Baptist
    Well, actually I know what dynamic equivalence, as applied to bible translation, means.

    However, what I was pointing out is that your first statement said
    But your second statement said
    See the conflict? [​IMG]

    Dynamic equivalence really has nothing at all to do with the evolution of the receptor language. When properly used it has to do with the differing logic between the exemplar language and the receptor language.

    Formal equivalence is a translational philosophy that maintains the grammatical form of the word in the exemplar in the translation process.

    Dynamic equivalence, when improperly used, is a translational philosophy that changes the grammatical form in the receptor language. (I believe this to be improper because it tends to negate, at least in part, the concept of verbal inspiration.)

    In other words the translators feel free to change a noun to a pronoun, or conversely, a pronoun to a noun, and even the case and number of the original words, or even the tense of verbs, etc.

    Robert Thomas, Professor of New Testament at Master's Seminary has written an excellent article wherein he opines that dynamic equivalence is more properly understood to be a hermeneutic than a translational philosophy. http://www.tms.edu/tmsj/tmsj1g.pdf
     
  2. Gold Dragon

    Gold Dragon Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Feb 24, 2005
    Messages:
    5,143
    Likes Received:
    149
    Faith:
    Non Baptist Christian
    But your second statement said
    See the conflict? [​IMG]
    </font>[/QUOTE]Nope still no conflict. Dynamic equivalence recognizing the dynamic evolution of language does not mean that the word dynamic in dynamic equivalence is about the dynamic evolution of language. Confusing, eh? [​IMG]

    Theoretically no. Practically yes. If the goal of dynamic equivalence is to accurately convey meaning in the receptor language, then the evolution of the meaning of words in the receptor language do matter.


    That can be argued and I would agree. However, to say that there is no hermeneutics involved in formal equivalence is also incorrect. All translation involves hermeneutics and minimizing the hermeneutics in translation is not necessarily "better". Sometimes it is.
     
  3. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
    Administrator

    Joined:
    Mar 30, 2005
    Messages:
    20,080
    Likes Received:
    3,491
    Faith:
    Baptist
    That would only be true if the receptor language evolved from one form to another during the translation process.

    Translations are done in the vernacular of the day. They are a snapshot in time of the receptor language. Unless the language itself changed from the time the translation started until it was complete there would be no need to account for the evolution of words in the receptor language as such evolution does not take place in so short a period of time. [​IMG]
     
  4. Gold Dragon

    Gold Dragon Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Feb 24, 2005
    Messages:
    5,143
    Likes Received:
    149
    Faith:
    Non Baptist Christian
    That would only be true if the receptor language evolved from one form to another during the translation process.

    Translations are done in the vernacular of the day. They are a snapshot in time of the receptor language. Unless the language itself changed from the time the translation started until it was complete there would be no need to account for the evolution of words in the receptor language as such evolution does not take place in so short a period of time. [​IMG]
    </font>[/QUOTE]Agreed. But in the time period from one translation to another, the evolution of language can happen.

    Correction, the evolution of language does matter in a single translation because often the most literal word still exists in the modern vernacular, but with an evolved meaning. In those cases, a different word may be chosen.

    "Lord of hosts" is one example where hosts no longer commonly carries the same meaning in the common vernacular that it used to even though it is the most literal translation for that word. The average non-bible/english scholar would think of the "Lord of people who open their homes to others".
     
  5. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
    Administrator

    Joined:
    Mar 30, 2005
    Messages:
    20,080
    Likes Received:
    3,491
    Faith:
    Baptist
    But that has nothing to do with equivalency either formal or dynamic.
    But that has nothing to do with dynamic equivalency. The Hebrew word in 1 Samuel 1:3 translated "hosts" in almost every English version including the NKJV, WEB, ESV, etc., which represent the latest English translations, is tsaba’ which can mean an army or a company, indicating a large group. But if we look at those latest English versions they all use the same English word, "hosts" to translate the English word.

    However, if we look at the NIV we see something entirely different. The NIV uses the term "the LORD Almighty" to translate what all the other English versions translate "LORD of hosts." Now that is an example of dynamic equivalence. The word "tsaba'" never means "almighty." In fact the Hebrew word for "almighty" is "Shadday."

    So, if one of the newer English versions chose to translate 1 Samuel 1:3 as "This man went up out of his city from year to year to worship and to sacrifice to Jehovah of multitudes in Shiloh" or perhaps "This man went up out of his city from year to year to worship and to sacrifice to The LORD of masses in Shiloh" would not be an example of dynamic equivalence for "tsaba'" does literally mean any of those words. But to change (the meaning of "dynamic") from a word meaning "many" (hosts, multitudes, masses") to a word meaning "absolute power" is definitely dynamic equivalence. [​IMG]
     
  6. Gold Dragon

    Gold Dragon Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Feb 24, 2005
    Messages:
    5,143
    Likes Received:
    149
    Faith:
    Non Baptist Christian
    And the reason for that change was the evolution of the english language, specifically the word hosts.

    Multitudes and masses do not capture the full meaning of what he is Lord of in these contexts. In some contexts, using multitudes or masses is does capture the meaning of the Hebrew.

    In 1 Sam 12:9 the word is translated into army in the NIV.

    [ April 15, 2005, 04:31 PM: Message edited by: Gold Dragon ]
     
  7. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
    Administrator

    Joined:
    Mar 30, 2005
    Messages:
    20,080
    Likes Received:
    3,491
    Faith:
    Baptist
    Yes, and the fact that some people don't know what "hosts" means does not mean using "armies" or "masses" or "multitudes," all of which would be legitimate formal equivalent translations of the Hebrew word, is dynamic equivalence. But changing it to try to make it say something it doesn't really say is an example of dynamic equivalence as I pointed out in the example from 1 Samuel 1:3.

    Here are some other examples, from the NIV, of what dynamic equivalence really is.

    Ephesians 4:1-3. The NIV translates the passage with three imperatives (commands): 1) "Be completely humble and gentle, 2) be patient, bearing with one another in love. 3) Make every effort..."

    But the Greek text does not have three commands (imperatives), but instead it has one exhortation (indicative) in verse 1, walk worthy of the calling with which you were called, followed by four examples. 1, being humble and gentle, 2, being patient, 3, bearing with one another, 4, endeavoring to keep the unity of the Spirit . . .

    Another classic example of this type of verb tense change is Jude 20.

    NIV Jude 20 Dear friends, build yourselves up in your most holy faith. Let the Holy Spirit guide and help you when you pray.

    The NIV changes the participle "building" to the imperative "build."

    (I won't even go into the difference between "praying in the Holy Spirit" and "Let the Holy Spirit guide and help you when you pray.")

    [​IMG]
     
  8. Gold Dragon

    Gold Dragon Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Feb 24, 2005
    Messages:
    5,143
    Likes Received:
    149
    Faith:
    Non Baptist Christian
    Whether there are three commands or one command doesn't alter the meaning of the commands and that they were commands. It may slightly alter the relationship between the commands but, breaking up some of Paul's really long sentences dramatically improves the readability and understanding in modern english by the average person.

    For more rigorous bible study, I always recommend more literal translations like the NASB where things like the relationships between the parts of this single command in these three verses can come to light.
     
  9. Paul33

    Paul33 New Member

    Joined:
    Sep 18, 2004
    Messages:
    2,434
    Likes Received:
    0
    I love the NIV, but the TNIV almost makes me want to switch to something else. What a pathetic attempt at pandering to gender-inaccurate political correctness.
     
  10. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
    Administrator

    Joined:
    Mar 30, 2005
    Messages:
    20,080
    Likes Received:
    3,491
    Faith:
    Baptist
    Uh, no. The point was there aren't any commands. The imperative is not used, only the indicative.
    The NASB is a formal equivalent translation and gets Ephesians 4:1-4 correct.

    Just a note on the NASB. It is formal to the point of woodenness on some occasions. It gets so involved in formal equivalence that it actually obscures the colloquial meaning of some passages. It is an excellent translation but the reader needs to do a lot of personal study (which is not a bad thing!) in order to understand some of the passages. [​IMG]
     
  11. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

    Joined:
    Dec 6, 2002
    Messages:
    2,024
    Likes Received:
    1
    TNIV? I avoid it like the plague! Also the NRSV and all the other "gender neutral" versions. Let's not start messing with what was originally written! IMHO, there are several good Bible versions out there without resorting to the "gender neutral" versions...or the paraphrases...or the "dynamic equivalency" versions. Just give me a literal translation like the KJV, the NKJV, the ASV or the NASB and I will be happy. Does this mean that I am LTO (Literal Translation Only)?
     
  12. go2church

    go2church Active Member
    Site Supporter

    Joined:
    Jun 21, 2002
    Messages:
    4,304
    Likes Received:
    6
    Faith:
    Baptist
    OK, so I take it most won't be carrying a TNIV with them to church, is that what I'm getting?
     
  13. Roy1

    Roy1 New Member

    Joined:
    Sep 2, 2003
    Messages:
    132
    Likes Received:
    0
    Thanks for the input,
    It looks like the T.N.I.V.is not receiving a wide approval of potential readers. It looks like it does have some serious flaws and a general degrading in the integrity process of translation.
    Roy
     
  14. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
    Site Supporter

    Joined:
    Jul 31, 2000
    Messages:
    14,396
    Likes Received:
    672
    Faith:
    Baptist
    The TNIV appears to have strayed from correct translation of its sources too many times to be considered valid.
     
  15. alexander284

    alexander284 Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Apr 10, 2005
    Messages:
    1,510
    Likes Received:
    338
    Faith:
    Baptist
    Paul, I wholeheartedly agree with your assessment.

    I'm beginning to think Zondervan is just interested in selling more Bibles. ;)
     
Loading...