Are some verses more authoritative than others?

[El_Guero]

Where the Holy Spirit inspired Paul to write: "to the unmarried and the widows I say" He inspired Paul to write that. does that mean that the Holy Spirit wanted Paul to actually write something else? I don't think so.

Was it written upon less authority? No. Were his words less inspired? No.

In Him

My question is directed at the passage in I Cor. 7, where Paul states he is speaking, not the Lord.

I believe Paul is not "qualifying" his comments as if to say "this is only my opinion, so you can take it or leave it", I believe he is speaking as one having authority from Jesus Christ.

But if I granted for the moment that Paul was really just saying, "this is my opinion, not the Lord's", would that matter? Since Paul was speaking under the inspiration of Holy Spirit, then what he said is authoritative, meaning it is Truth from God that must considered in the context it was written and obeyed in the light of the revelation of Jesus Christ.

peace to youraying:

 

[canadyjd]

El_Guero

You have to think like a 1st century Jewish Rabbi and not like a 21st century westerner. We consider, generally, everyone's opinions to carry equal weight. We don't have to agree, and often disagree, but everyone can simply say, "in my humble opinion...."

1st century Jews established a foundation for their opinions of spiritual matters by quoting "learned fathers" usually from various "schools of thought". For example, someone may asked, "May I carry wood for a fire on the Sabbath?" Answer: "Rabbi so-n-so looses you (you may) but Rabbi so-n-so binds you (you may not). It was considered presumpteous to offer an opinion of your own without establishing the authority for such an opinion. Jesus didn't do so because His authority was from Himself.

Consider all of the "You have heard that it was said, but I say...." from Jesus in the Sermon on the Mount. Matt. 7:28-29 "The result was that when Jesus had finished these words, the multitudes were amazed at His teaching; for he was teaching them as one having authority, and not as their scribes." Jesus taught as one having authority in and of Himself.

Paul taught as one having authority from Jesus Christ Himself. So when Paul says, (I Cor. 7:11) "But to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord..." he is establishing the foundation of all his instructions.

And then he says in v.12 "But to the rest I say, not the Lord..." he is not saying that Jesus gave him specific instructions for married folks, but not for everyone else so he's just going to have to give his best opinion. He is grounding his opinions to those of Jesus Christ and saying that they are just as trustworthy as if they came from Jesus Himself, because as His Apostle, his opinions have their foundation in Jesus.

peace to youraying: