In the same context where Paul is saying that grace is much more abounding than sin, the apostle is discussing Adam's representation and comparing it to Christ's. The apostle says that like as sin and death passed unto all that Adam represented, so did righteousness and eternal life pass unto all that Christ represented.
Are you saying it was never God's intentions/plan to save the whole world, only those represented (actually saved) by christ???
That being the case, where is the
"exclusion" for
"Any" to be lost in the following verses?
Joh 3:16 For
God so
loved the world,
Joh 3:17 For God
sent not his Son into the world
to condemn the world; but that
the world through him
might be saved.
2Pe 3:9 not willing that
any should perish, but that
all should come to repentance.
1Jo 2:2 And he is the
propitiation for our sins: and not for
ours only, but
also for the sins of the whole world.
Ro 5:18 Therefore as by the
offence of one judgment came upon
all men to condemnation; even so
by the righteousness of one the
free gift came upon
all men unto justification of life.
Ro 5:15 But not as the offence, so also is
the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead,
much more the grace of God, and the
gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
Ro 5:20 But where sin abounded,
grace did much more abound:
For Grace to exceed sin, it would have to have the ability to save the whole world, all have sinned.
That's what we find in scripture, but If God has provided a way for all men to be saved, then why isn't all men saved,
Predestination interprets scripture to say God never had any intentions of saving the whole world, only a "few".
The other side says God provided for the whole world to be saved,
"BUT" required man to
"SHOW FAITH" in Jesus before God would save. (grace through faith)
Paul begins that chapter saying his heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is that they might be saved. Immediately people think he must mean from hell. These people in Romans 10 are said to have zeal of God but not according to knowledge. Paul says they are ignorant of God's righteousness (the justifying righteousness of Christ) and are trying to establish their own righteousness through the law. Paul is praying that they might be saved from that, because Christ is the end of the law unto salvation to everyone that believeth. He then contrasts the righteousness of the law with the righteousness which is of faith, two ways of life really. The righteousness of faith, Paul says, speaks in our hearts telling us to call upon the name of the Lord, to believe Him and in Him. If we do these things we'll be saved. From what? What's the context? Ignorance of the fact that Christ is our righteousness. Thus, being saved from that, we are saved from trying to establish our own righteousness through the law.
What is the different in believing you are saved by the "works of the law" or by "Predestination"???
neither one of the above requires
"YOU" to
"SHOW FAITH" in Jesus prior to being saved.
Israel had "FAITH" (zeal) in God and believed in "predestination", being Abraham's descendants, but it didn't save them.
Saying we're saved by "predestination" is as
"BAD" as saying we're saved by "works of the law",
because neither
requires a
"personal faith" from
"US".
That doctrine didn't work Israel, it won't work for anyone else either.
Finally the word might in John 3:17 doesn't speak about a possibility, but rather rendering the ability. God sent His Son into the world in order to carry out His purpose.
And his purpose was that
all might be saved and not
any perish. :smilewinkgrin: