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It is not a contradiction whatsoever, and is easily observed.So man is enslaved to sin.
But you said...
You keep bouncing back and forth. Is man a slave to sin or not. I'm not speaking about before or after his first sin. I'm specifically looking at the last quote where you said "if you are enslaved to sin..." and then you also said....
Seems you keep going back and forth from one post to another.
Let me see if I have it down.
According to winman:
1. If you are enslaved to sin, you would always choose to do the very worst thing you could do.
2. Men become slaves to sin AFTER they willingly choose to sin.
3. men after they sin will always choose to do the very worst thing they can do.
It is not a contradiction whatsoever, and is easily observed.
...
All sin starts out like this. You play with it and experiment with it, you are not addicted to it. But if you continue in it, you soon become addicted.
Free choice comes first, addiction follows. And this is what Jesus said, the man who sins is the servant to sin. He makes himsellf a slave.
winman=If you are enslaved to sin said:So according to what you have stated...
1. If you are enslaved to sin, you would always choose to do the very worst thing you could do.
winman=If you are enslaved to sin said:2. Men become slaves to sin AFTER they willingly choose to sin.Conclusion: men after they sin will always choose to do the very worst thing they can do.winman said:the man who sins is the servant to sin. He makes himsellf a slave.
I've gone by specifically what you have written. The problem is that when you argued that a person enslaved to sin will always be as evil as he can be is not true. I have shown a valid syllogism and come to a valid conclusion based on what you stated. The problem is that the major premise is incorrect(your statement about man always choosing the worst if he's enslaved to sin).
I'm thinking much of this is a difference without a distinction. We all agree that everyone does sin and does need Christ, so whether or not we define that as being guilty from birth or merely prone to sin from birth, does it really matter that much? Is not the end result the same?
The bigger issue in my mind has to do with the SOLUTION for the sin problem and its sufficiency to accomplish its intended purpose.
Isn't the problem with all involved looking at slavery from a 19th century vantage point and not from a biblical slavery vantage point?