Originally posted by C4K:
Difference there - KJVOism is, imho, a legalistic stand.
However, I will not attack that local church for their choices any more than I would critise you for your choices.
Would you please explain how KJVOism is a legalistic standard? What is your definition of legalism?
Is the OT Law legalistic? Or, was it made a legalistic standard by the Pharisees? Consider I Timothy 1. It seems that any standard, any requirement, can be made legalistic. For example, modesty in women's apparel is a Biblical standard but it can be made into a legalistic issue. Modesty, as you know, is more than simply covering the body amply with fabric.
Then can we conclude that the standard itself is not inherently legalistic but it is the way the standard is applied? If so, how can we label KJVOism as intrinsically legalistic?
There are some good reasons why a church may choose to be KJV only in its ministries.
1. It provides a single accepted standard used by all members of the group.
2. The KJV is a known standard without having to worry about the bad translations or paraphrases.
3. Supports the idea of an authoritative Scripture without division and controversy generated by varying translations.
4. The KJV has four hundred years of commentary, exegesis and definition of theological terms behind it. It portends a venerable body of scholarship.
5. The language of the KJV is a highly denotative language as opposed the more connotative modern usage.
6. The KJV language is not changing but it is a fixed reference.
7. It has deep cultural and literary roots that enhance its interpretation and meaning.
8. The KJV has been the English translation accepted and used by the believing church for centuries. Preservation, like canonization, is carried out and accepted within the body of believers.
9. The KJV is a trustworthy translation approved and accepted by the conservative, believing church as opposed to the genesis of the modern versions in liberal, skeptical rationalism.
10.
ad infinitum