Originally posted by R. Charles Blair:
Ituttut - Please forgive an "interloper" who has not been part of the conversation, but I couldn't resist - haven't posted here for several months, being caught up in other matters. You wrote (paraphrased) "I can find nowhere in Scripture where [the gospel of the kingdom, I suppose?] was preached to or at Gentiles by .... (list)."
Happy you joined the party Charles. I love to spread the “grace commission” of Christ Jesus.
Let’s start from scratch with the whole paragraph that I believe you refer, and go step-by-step. Quote: Jesus while on earth had the gospel of John the Baptist for the nation Israel, that gospel being the “kingdom is at hand”, and to enter, God’s people were told they had to “repent and be baptized for the remission of their sins”. I can find nowhere in scripture where this message was ever preached to or at a Gentile by John the Baptist, Jesus, Peter, John, any of the other earthly appointed Apostles, or James the son of Joseph and Mary. We know Paul never did. Of course the heathen could become proselytes of the Jewish faith by circumcision, but not on their own could they enter into the covenant gospel. Unquote.
For a qualifier To some of your questions below, please notice what I say above – No Gentile was given the gospel of “repent and be baptized for the remission of their sins”, with the “gospel being the Kingdom is at hand”.
I don’t believe His Word leaves any doubt as to the Gospel of John and to whom it is meant. We will see that Jesus most definitely points this out to us.
My contention is Jesus preached the gospel of John the Baptist. John’s gospel was Israel had to repent and be baptized for the remission of sins for the Kingdom of Heaven was at hand. Mark 1:4 John did baptize, preached baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. Verse 5 points to the nation of God in Jerusalem and Judaea were baptized of John, confessing their sins. Were there proselytes? I don’t know but this message is only for God’s people for they are the only one’s that made covenant with God, at God’s request. He never offered such a covenant to any heathen, and this gospel is only for His very own that He chose for Himself.
The Kingdom was at hand. Not behind them or way in the future, but it is here At Hand – Matthew 3:1-2 informs John the Baptist preached Repent for the Kingdom of Heaven is at Hand. So did Jesus preach this same gospel of John. We know He did, and it is a different gospel than that before John the Baptist.
Where is the evidence Jesus preached the gospel of John? Mark 1:14-15 says Jesus came to Galilee preaching the time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand, and repent you sheep of mine and believe this gospel. The “great commission” contains this same gospel as proved in Mark 16:15-16. ”And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. 16. He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.” The following verses show what must be observed of those that believed and received this gospel of John the Baptist. We also note this is what Peter Acts 2:38,and all the other Apostles preached to the Jew only, and it was the gospel of John the Baptist.
How do we know this gospel had not been preached to the uncircumcised? Acts 10:28:29, ”And he said unto them, Ye know how that it is an unlawful thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; but God hath shewed me that I should not call any man common or unclean. 29. Therefore came I unto you without gainsaying, as soon as I was sent for: I ask therefore for what intent ye have sent for me?” The Jew considered unclean the heathen Gentile. It took the intervention of God for Peter to preach to a Gentile, and further in Acts we see he had some explaining to do to the Pentecostal church over this matter. An only after they understood God had sent him to proclaim the Grace of God to the heathen, did they let him off the hook.
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Let’s pause here for just a moment. Isn’t this what the Catholic church, church of Christ and other’s believe? Then would you say they are right after all? Is that what we as Baptist believe? Not by a long shot for we do not believe we Must repent of our sins (Christ forgave us 2000 years ago), repentance being in Him, and we hold water baptism is not what remitted our sins. For by grace are we saved, through faith, and not of works. Not by the works of our hands, or that of others hands. That was only for the Apostles, for they had the power of the Holy Ghost in their bodies, therefore it was the hands of God that touched the believers. That dispensation is not this dispensation of the pure Grace of God.
Let’s look at the Power of the Holy Ghost, using man’s (Jew) hand. Acts 3:7; 4:3; 4:30-31; 5:12; 6:6; 8:17. Here in 17 we see the half-breed of Israel is now being included, but as yet no heathen Gentile has been. And on it goes through Acts 28. Evidently the power of the Holy Ghost had served the purpose of assisting the 12 Apostles to have all Israel come to the knowledge of Jesus Christ, and accept Him as their King. They refused. Paul was also given the Holy Ghost without measure to begin the Christian into the Body of Christ. The miracles, and the laying on of hands came to an end of bestowing power and blessing. It is now through faith only, that things are done without the laying on by hands of man – Colossians 2:11-12.
Oh how I wish Baptist would quit saying what they do not believe, and what they do not understand. We either believe the “great commission” is for us today and need to change to another denomination (our standing in Christ), or we need say we believe the “grace commission” given by Christ Jesus from heaven to our (my) Apostle to the uncircumcised. What is that gospel from Christ Jesus that is contained in the “grace commission”. Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and we will be saved – Acts 16:28-31. And that is what we Baptist are, Saved coming through the Blood of Jesus Christ, regardless of what some hold dear.
To your questions.
Do we really think that the Magi were not saved? They were certainly Gentiles. In Lk. 3:14, how could these have been Jewish soldiers? The Roman army was in control in Palestine.
They did not come “through” faith in the blood, and weren’t preached “the kingdom is at hand”. Qualifier above.
Was the woman of Samaria (Jn. 4) a Jew? Was she not saved?
She is half or less Israelite, and not considered a heathen Gentile. She has stock of Jacob in her. See qualifier above.
Before the Message on the Mount, comparing Mt., Mk. & Lk., we have the rejection of Jesus by His home town folks clearly because He was preaching to Gentiles (Lk. 4:24-29).
Please read again. Jesus was in the synagogue and reading from the Book of and for the benefit of these Jews. That one leper was healed in the flesh by Elijah . It says nothing of salvation. See qualifier above.
He fulfilled the prophetic word of Isaiah (Mr. 4:13-16) by being "a light to Galilee of the Gentiles."
Amen! The prophet’s of God speak truth. This is what Paul brings to the table, by the will and specific instructions given Him by Christ from heaven, as we see in Acts 13:46-47, ”………… I have set thee to be a light of the Gentiles, that thou shouldest be for salvation unto the ends of the earth.”
Many from Galilee AND DECAPOLIS (Gentile region) and "all Syria" heard Him preaching the "gospel of the kingdom," Mt. 4:23-24, Lk. 4:44-45. Mk. 3 adds "Idumea (Edom - Herod's home), "and about Tyre and Sidon," to the crowd that heard the Message on the Mount, fulfilling Isa. 2:1-4 and Micah 4:1-3 ("mountain of the Lord's house" [church - RCB]to be "established on the top of the mountains, and all nations shall flow into it."
Please read passages again. ”…teaching in their synagogues….among the people.”” Please notice scripture says He only came for His People, not the Gentiles – Matthew 15:24. Jews lived also in Gentile regions. See qualifier above.
Immediately after the message, a Roman centurion came to Him, Mt. 8 - evidently because he heard the sermon; Roman soldiers were everywhere, listening to everything. And Jesus highly commended his faith - none like it in Israel!
Conjecture on your part. Scripture would have been specific on this matter. Also he wouldn’t have been there as a “spy”. This is a “centurion”, he being over 100 men. He doesn’t have time for this type of leisure time on his hands. Jesus entered into Capernaum, and Jesus was known far and wide in regions beyond His land. Healing was done, and nothing was said of salvation, and the “kingdom at hand gospel” was not preached to Him, and neither was the “grace commission”, which was hidden by God at this time.
Later in this chapter and parallels, He crossed over into Gentile territory, Geresa, Gadara, Decapolis (Latin for "ten cities" under Roman control), and returned there later, Mk. 7:53ff. Was the demoniac not saved? What about the others of that region when He returned? And of course even Scofield admits He preached His message to the Syro-Phonecian woman. In the last week, certain Greeks came saying "We would see Jesus." Were they rudely turned away?
What is so remarkable about Gentiles being in the land of Judah, and Israel? Can you find where Jesus preached the gospel of John the Baptist to this man or these people? They are afraid of Him and they want Him to leave. Jesus didn’t try to preach to them, for they were Gentile’s, but Jesus Christ is compassionate. This is where God sent Him, and Jesus does the will of His Father. Notice the man wanted Jesus to be with him, or that he could follow Jesus. Jesus could not have this happen for the Jew does not associate with the heathen, and Jesus told him to go home and tell what had happened. It was God’s will that Jesus wound up in this place, at a time chosen by God to do a miracle.
I believe this could be more for the benefit of His Apostles for they still were not quite sure what to think of this man Jesus. Mark 4:41, ”And they feared exceedingly, and said one to another, What manner of man is this, that even the wind and the sea obey him?” Every one of Jesus’ Apostles was Jewish, and they are a “stiff-necked people”. They require signs to believe as scripture informs. We Gentile’s will believe Him, not needing any signs, as we walk not by sight, but in faith.
We take great liberties with His Word, forcing meanings not implied, or desired. As to the heathen woman, it says nothing of Jesus preaching to her, or that she or her daughter is saved. Read this same account in Matthew 15:21-29. Jesus did His best ignoring her, and His Apostles didn’t like it either, and wanted her to go away. They did not associate with Gentile’s. But again Jesus is compassionate, and again proves to His Apostles that He can heal anybody, not just His own people, if He wishes to do so. However, we know it was not His practice to do so.
The Rock Stars, Movie Stars, and others of this world’s adulation think they have no time to themselves. Jesus says He has nowhere to lay His head. He went to Tyre and Sidon to hide. He is so well known he cannot get away from His fame even these areas.
You also wrote "It was impossible for any to be saved through faith of Jesus Christ [glad you kept the objective genitive there; it isn't our faith, but His that saves - RCB], for He had not shed His blood." What do we do with Rev. 13:8 and 17:8? To say that something foreknown from eternity past could have no results until it was fulfilled misses the point that God is not bound by time. Even with a human will, while the property remains, the owner may dispose of it as he sees fit in advance of his death.
This is in the tribulation period and has nothing to do with us. Revelation has nothing to do with we that are in the Body of Christ. We are in heaven at this time. The Grace period of God that came to us Through our Lord Jesus Christ is over. We have been raptured. His Word teaches He is coming back in His wrath and it will be poured out on His people, the nations, and the earth.
And the term "through faith" was not used before (I've forgotten your first ref here) - but (I believe JackRus picked up on this above) "through faith" is the common thread of OT saints listed in Heb. 11 - used after the fact, but indicating that their actions looking forward in faith to whatever God would do were pleasing to Him. Are we to argue that these were not saved? Yes, we have more information, "some beter thing," but surely the same salvation!
You are right that of course they are saved, but not by the same gospel. Paul says it very plainly, and in Hebrews this fact stands prominently out, that everyone mentioned in verse 11 is saved by faith. Why can’t we just take Paul at his word when he tells us what Christ revealed to him. Those of the circumcision faith came by the Word, and the uncircumcised comes through the Word.
Quite obviously, I am not a "dispie," neither am I a covenant theologian; possiibly the one term that would come closest is "landmark," but I do agree with BapMom above that it is better to work from the text out rather than from the theology in.
I really don’t consider His Word to be “theory”. Isn’t taught theology “tradition of man”? What does scripture say is our quest. We are to make sure we use the Who, When, Where, What, Why, and How of things. By the Holy Spirit the Bible was written, and by His Spirit He will interpret it for us.
Most systems, if not all, falter at some point; Scripture never fails. It is "that which is perfect," and it has come to us -all of it - for our admonition, we "upon whom the ends of the age have come." We are in the last days, and have been ever since Acts 2 or even before, the last age of human history. Peter made that clear in Acts 2:1-21. John the Baptist preached:
"Behold the Lamb of God Who takes away the sin of the world." That is the same message I will preach tomorrow from I Cor. 15. Wishing you His best - Charles Blair - Rom. 8:28