the translators for the KJV NEVER claimed to have inspiration from God to do their work.... Why would the KJV only have it, why not the geneva or Bishop or the Vulgate fior that matter?
A possible corollary to this are some questions I've posed time and time again to KJV 1611 ONLY advocates. NEVER yet have I received a reasonable defense of their logic of asserting that ONLY the 1611 KJV is
THE inspired WORD of God such that ANY and ALL other translations--by that very assertion--therefore
WHOLLY AND COMPLETELY SATANIC CONTERFEITS WHOSE SOLE PURPOSE IS TO PROMOTE HERESY:
As far as I can tell,
ALL KJV 1611 ONLY advocates will agree with the premise Romans 10:17--"...faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by THE WORD OF GOD" (emphasis mine).
Therefore, a prerequisite for one's eternal salvation MUST, of necessity, come by hearing
THE WORD OF GOD.
Now, since
ONLY the 1611 "Authorized" KJV is
THE WORD OF GOD,
no one can possibly be saved without hearing about the death, burial and (bodily) resurrection of our Lord Jesus Christ
except from the "Authorized" 1611 KJV.
Several quandries arise from such a logical conclusion, and the silence of any honest "Authorized" 1611l KJVO advocates is deafening:
1) How were people who died prior to AD 1611 saved, since obviously there was
NO WORD OF GOD prior to the publication of the "Authorized" 1611 KJV?
2) If people who died prior to AD 1611 were saved, what WORD OF GOD did the Holy Spirit use to tell them of the death, burial and (bodily) resurrection of our Lord Jesus Christ?
3) If there was such a WORD OF GOD in existence prior to the publication of the "Authorized" 1611 KJV, did that WORD OF GOD
stop becoming THE WORD OF GOD once the "Authorized" 1611 KJV was published?
4) If such a WORD OF GOD did not stop becoming THE WORD OF GOD after the "Authorized" 1611 KJV was published:
a) Are we to assume that there was at least
two WORDS [?] OF GOD in existence after AD 1611?
b) If there were not at least two WORDS [?] OF GOD in existence subsequent to the publication of the "Authorized" 1611 KJV, why did GOD deem it necessary to wait until AD 1611 to give us English-speaking people
THE WORD OF GOD?
What a pity, just think, if they'd only waited until AD 1611 rolled around to die, they would have
then FINALLY heard of the death, burial and (bodily) resurrection of our Lord Jesus Christ!!