Ah yes, but you see, all of the modern translations do include the passage! The alternative endings just do not make sense.I don't believe it does, that was the question. I know there are differences of opinion, though it should be noted not one modern translation includes the ending of Mark without a footnote about the questionable nature of verses 9-16.
I didn't engage you on that, and don't intend to.My statements about the KJV only stand