Before Abraham was, I am....

Geaney · Apr 2, 2005

BOB RYAN Quote:
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...Given that the Septuagint has Hebrew scholars making it "I AM"...
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It is unfortunate that you have gone to those who buy and sell their contradictory understanding of The blessed Hebrew word "EHEYEH" (Exodus 3:12,14).

The Holy Ruach (Spirit) of The Father has, in His great Mercy, shown His wonderful protection of His word against those who would seek to corrupt it "for the sake of the trinitarian tradition" (see Matthew 15:6).

Trinitarian translators are trapped in their own snare in that they, on the one hand, CORRECTLY translate the blessed word "EHEYEH" in Exodus 3:12 as "I WILL BE" (Exodus 3:12 KJV) whilst they, on the other hand, "making the word of Elohiym of none effect through your tradition" (Mark 7:13) by mistranslating it as "I AM" (Exodus 3:14 KJV).

"The grass withers, the flower fades,
But the word of our Elohiym stands forever" (Isaiah 40:8)..

The blessed "word...I WILL BE (EHEYEH)...STANDS FOREVER (Exodus 3:12,14. Isaiah 40:8)". HALLELUYAH!

Patrick Geaney
Unworthy servant and disciple of "Adoni Yeshuwa' HaMeshiyach" (Psalm 110:1)

Chemnitz · Apr 2, 2005

Bob, I do know both biblical languages and I have to disagree. The underlying hebrew in verses 14 and 15 are different. In verse 14 the name of God (YHWH) never occurs. God does not actually name himself until verse 15 when He tells Moses to tell the sons of Israel that YHWH has sent him.

I do agree that Jesus is making his place as God known in John 8, but not by saying ego eimi.

BTW I don't know if anybody else has read the homepage listed by Geaney, but he belongs to a cult that denies the authority of nearly half of Scripture.

Marcia · Apr 2, 2005

This a footnote explanation from the NET Bible on Ex. 3.14:

The verb form used here is hy\h=a# ('ehyeh), the Qal imperfect, first person common singular, of the verb "to be," hyh (haya). It forms an excellent paronomasia with the name. So when God used the verb to express his name, he used this form saying, "I AM." When his people refer to him as Yahweh, which is the third person masculine singular form of the same verb, they say "he is." Some commentators argue for a future tense translation, "I will be who I will be," because the verb has an active quality about it, and the Israelites lived in the light of the promises for the future. They argue that "I AM" would be of little help to the Israelites in bondage. But a translation of "I will be" does not effectively do much more except restrict it to the future. The idea of the verb would certainly indicate that God is not bound by time, and while he is present ("I AM") he will always be present, even in the future, and so "I AM" would embrace that as well (see also Ruth 2:13; Ps 50:21; Hos 1:9). The Greek translation used a participle to capture the idea; and several times in the Gospels Jesus used the powerful "I am" with this significance. The point is that Yahweh is sovereignly independent of all creation and that his presence guarantees the fulfillment of the covenant (cf. Isa 41:4; 42:6, 8; 43:10-11; 44:6; 45:5-7). Others argue for a causative Hiphil translation of "I will cause to be," but nowhere in the Bible does this verb appear in Hiphil or Piel. A good summary of the views can be found in G. H. Park-Taylor, hwhy, Yahweh, the Divine Name in the Bible (Waterloo, Ontario, 1975). See among the many articles: B. Beitzel, "Exodus 3:14 and the Divine Name: A Case of Biblical Paronomasia," TJ 1 (1980): 5-20; C. D. Isbell, "The Divine Name ehyeh as a Symbol of Presence in Israelite Tradition," HAR 2 (1978): 101-18; J. G. Janzen, "What's in a Name? Yahweh in Exodus 3 and the Wider Biblical Context," Int 33 (1979): 227-39; J. R. Lundbom, "God's Use of the Idem per Idem to Terminate Debate," HTR 71 (1978): 193-201; A. R. Millard, "Yw and Yhw Names," VT 30 (1980): 208-12; and R. Youngblood, "A New Occurrence of the Divine Name 'I AM,'" JETS 15 (1972): 144-52.
SOURCE
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Marcia · Apr 2, 2005

Originally posted by Chemnitz:
BTW I don't know if anybody else has read the homepage listed by Geaney, but he belongs to a cult that denies the authority of nearly half of Scripture.
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Man, I just looked at it! Not only that, but it says that Christians are followers of Satan!

From this we can see that the EVIL name 'CHRISTIAN; a little christ'; is "THE NAME OF THE BEAST" (Revelation 13:17) and clearly identifies all CHRISTIANS; the 'little christs'; as being the deceived followers of 'Paul'; who "FOLLOW the devil and false apostle; 'Paulus christus' and his christian ministers; WITH WONDER" (Matthew 13:39. Rev 13:3).
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