Greetings
Note the correlation. Water doesn't saved! How can anything earthly have spiritual worth? Only the unseen baptism of God's Spirit counts!
Clearly I Peter 3:20 comes AFTER Noah's justification. How is it that you refuse to honor God's Word by refusing to read the entire passage?
Notice first Ananias’ salutation! He said, “Brother Saul.” Why would this man of God call murdering Saul “brother?” The answer must be obvious. Saul was converted on the Damscus road and was already saved.
This is confirmed when we see the twofold purpose for which Ananias was sent:
___(1) He was sent that Saul might receive his eyesight and
___(2) that he would be filled with the Spirit.
You force denominational dogma upon Acts 22:16 to the disdain of Acts 9:17. When will you ever use ALL of the relevant passages? Even Ananias clearly shows that Paul’s baptism was not for the purpose to get him saved.
Paul himself verifies this through whenever he recounted his Damascus road salvation experience. In Acts 26:12-16, he mentions a light from heaven, a voice, a vision, and a commission as an apostle.
GOD DOES NOT COMMISSION THE UNSAVED TO BE HIS REPRESENTATIVE! This by itself should have straightened out any such human-centered appeals to water baptism.
If you are right, why is it that Paul never mentions baptism?! If you had consulted the context, you would have seen that forgiveness of sins (salvation) comes through faith in Jesus (Acts 26:18) – not linked with baptism of any sort.
Paul also recounted his Acts 26 Damascus road salvation experience in Galatians 1. His version is even shorter here. He mentions a revelation of Jesus and a commission to preach to the Gentiles. He specifically states that he did not confer with any human, especially not the apostles (Gal 1:12,16). If you are right, why is it that Paul never mentions baptism?!
Paul makes a quick reference to this in 1 Cor 9:1. He asks rhetorically, “have I not seen Jesus Christ our Lord?” If baptism was important, why didn’t Paul say, “have I not been baptized?” Paul makes his last reference to his salvation in 1 Cor 15:8. He shows that He saw Jesus but again makes no reference to baptism. If you are right, why is it that Paul never mentions baptism?!
Paul, himself comments on your errant view directly by denying that baptism has any part of the gospel message (1 Cor 1:14,17). So important is this denial of baptism that it is discussed elsewhere all by itself as a major refutation of the baptism heresy.
The silence of baptism in his very retellings denies any relationship between salvation and water baptism.
You need to use ALL of God's Word - not just the parts that are conducive to your denominational creeds.
Lloyd
Well, true, the Acts 2 is clearly water. But context shows that it is for national Israel alone and not for salvation. It is to bring them into a right national covenantal relationship so that they will receive the Messiah Whom they crucified.Originally posted by mman:
I Cor tells us we are baptized into one body and Acts tells us that at baptism, we are added to the body (Church). The baptism in Acts is clearly in water.
Note the correlation. Water doesn't saved! How can anything earthly have spiritual worth? Only the unseen baptism of God's Spirit counts!
Wow! I can't believe I'm answering this one. This is so basic. I now understand why you have confusion on the harder items - because the elementals are over your head. Gen 7:21-23 clearly shows the death. Context rules! One had to read more than one itsy bitsy verse. The narrative cover 3 chapters.What? Are you reading the same passage as me. Where in the context is water said to be bringing death and destruction? . . . You are taking this out of context. The water did not bring death and destruction to Noah and his family.
Clearly I Peter 3:20 comes AFTER Noah's justification. How is it that you refuse to honor God's Word by refusing to read the entire passage?
Yes - it is easy. Context rules - again. Peter was preaching to national Israel. He urged them to return to Messiah Jesus. The remission of sins was a natinal repentance - not a personal issue of justification. When will you begin to use easy context? This is one of the first rules of biblical investigation.What was the purpose for their repentance and baptism? Remission of sins. It is easy to understand.
Such silliness. Because water baptism doesn't count for justification doesn't mean there is no justification. We need to do water baptism for the right reasons - sanctification!By your logic, we can not have remission of sins, since Jesus never did anything for the remission of sins. Our faith cannot provide justification since it didn't provide Jesus justification.
Another partial truth. The best way to understand this passage is to read the contextual foundation upon which it rests. In Acts 9:17, we see why Ananias was sent to Saul. Ananias told Paul, “Brother Saul, the Lord, [even] Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost."The scriptures plainly teach that baptism washes away our sins (Acts 22:16)
Notice first Ananias’ salutation! He said, “Brother Saul.” Why would this man of God call murdering Saul “brother?” The answer must be obvious. Saul was converted on the Damscus road and was already saved.
This is confirmed when we see the twofold purpose for which Ananias was sent:
___(1) He was sent that Saul might receive his eyesight and
___(2) that he would be filled with the Spirit.
You force denominational dogma upon Acts 22:16 to the disdain of Acts 9:17. When will you ever use ALL of the relevant passages? Even Ananias clearly shows that Paul’s baptism was not for the purpose to get him saved.
Paul himself verifies this through whenever he recounted his Damascus road salvation experience. In Acts 26:12-16, he mentions a light from heaven, a voice, a vision, and a commission as an apostle.
GOD DOES NOT COMMISSION THE UNSAVED TO BE HIS REPRESENTATIVE! This by itself should have straightened out any such human-centered appeals to water baptism.
If you are right, why is it that Paul never mentions baptism?! If you had consulted the context, you would have seen that forgiveness of sins (salvation) comes through faith in Jesus (Acts 26:18) – not linked with baptism of any sort.
Paul also recounted his Acts 26 Damascus road salvation experience in Galatians 1. His version is even shorter here. He mentions a revelation of Jesus and a commission to preach to the Gentiles. He specifically states that he did not confer with any human, especially not the apostles (Gal 1:12,16). If you are right, why is it that Paul never mentions baptism?!
Paul makes a quick reference to this in 1 Cor 9:1. He asks rhetorically, “have I not seen Jesus Christ our Lord?” If baptism was important, why didn’t Paul say, “have I not been baptized?” Paul makes his last reference to his salvation in 1 Cor 15:8. He shows that He saw Jesus but again makes no reference to baptism. If you are right, why is it that Paul never mentions baptism?!
Paul, himself comments on your errant view directly by denying that baptism has any part of the gospel message (1 Cor 1:14,17). So important is this denial of baptism that it is discussed elsewhere all by itself as a major refutation of the baptism heresy.
The silence of baptism in his very retellings denies any relationship between salvation and water baptism.
You need to use ALL of God's Word - not just the parts that are conducive to your denominational creeds.
Lloyd