Bible Translation NLT, Tynsdale 2004 Acts 2:38-40

[Darron Steele]

Darren Steele:
"At Acts 2:38, it is the repentance that leads to "remission of your sins" (ASV). Jesus taught the same at Luke 24:47 "repentance for| remission of sins" (NASB|ASV). Baptism is to follow up that repentance."

GE:
The Greek implies the opposite, namely, that the baptism of the Spirit shall go before anything else, for it literally says, "Be ye baptised INTO the Name ... unto baptism INTO forgiveness of sins". The Name is Jesus Christ; He, is the forgiveness. He who is justified is he whose sins are forgiven, who have been found "IN HIM". "In Him" is, that one's, baptism. Water, and baptism "into" (eis udaton) I cannot see there. It isn't there; it's only "into" Christ = "into forgiveness". It is a matter of by grace through faith COMPLETELY. No plusses - no Roman Catholic heresy.

I am unaware of any reference work that has the literal translation you have. The most literal I have in front of me is:
"Peter but toward them; change mind, says, and let be immersed each of you on the name of Jesus Christ into sending off of the sins"
--McReynolds, Word Study Greek-English New Testament, page 431.
No text I am familiar with has two forms of the Greek word transliterated "baptize"/"baptism" present at this verse. The word translated "let be immersed" is the only appearance at Acts 2:38 that I see.

Of course, as earlier, I cited a Greek reference work that indicated which of the two commands had the stronger emphasis in the Greek:

...The Portuguese De Almeida ERC pre-1995 edition had “Arrependei-vos, e seja batizado cada um de vós em nome de Jesus Cristo, para perdão" = "You-people-must-repent-yourselves, and let-him-be baptized each one of you-people in name of Jesus Christ, in-order-for pardon."

The strong imperative is used for "Arrependei-vos" = KJV "Repent," but the obligatory subjunctive is used for "seja batizado" = KJV "be baptized." The strongest command is the "Repent."

The De Almeida ERA uses "Arrependei-vos" and "seja batizado" as well, as does the present ERC after 1995. The original D'Almeida used "Arrependeivos" and "bautizese" which is also obligatory subjunctive "let-s/he-baptize-self" = "let-s/he-get-self baptized."

The Spanish Reina-Valera tradition in the 1909, 1960, and 1995 uses "Arrepentíos" and "bautícese" which is also strong imperative "Repent" and obligatory subjunctive "let-s/he-baptize-self" = "let-s/he-get-self-baptized."

There is a difference in the force of the Greek verbs with emphasis on what the KJV translates "Repent"
--in Zodhiates, Complete WordStudy New Testament, page 397.
These foreign translations reflect that.

At Acts 2:38, it is the repentance that leads to "remission of your sins" (ASV). Jesus taught the same at Luke 24:47 "repentance for| remission of sins" (NASB|ASV). Baptism is to follow up that repentance.

I believe I ended a discussion about water baptism with you earlier. I will link that post.
http://www.baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=925166&postcount=63
It is not "Roman Catholic heresy" to do what Jesus Christ commanded.