Bible Was Written By Jews!

[Rant]

A lot of so called Christians think that their bible was written by some blue eyed Greman some where in 1559 AD>> for them ! and its for America, Canadfa , England and so on!!! NOTat all my friend!!
Psalm 147:19 & 20: ‘He declares His Word to Jacob; His statutes and His ordinances to Israel. He has not dealt with any other nation; they have not known His ordinances. Praise the Lord’.
Daniel 2:44: ‘The God of heaven shall set up a Kingdom which shall never be destroyed, nor shall its sovereignty be left to another people’.
Zephaniah 3:9: ‘For then I will give to the people a pure language from pure lips that they may call upon the name of the Lord, to serve Him with one voice’.
The whole Bible was written by Jewish people in the ancient language of Hebrew. Jesus and His disciples all spoke Hebrew and lived within the Jewish culture. Paul’s original letters were written in Hebrew. Why it is assumed Jesus spoke Greek, is because the Bible was translated into Greek for the new Greek-speaking Christian converts, and the translations were adopted and used about 300 AD, instead of the original Hebrew Gospel. People believe the New Testament was written in uneducated (Koine) Greek, which is an inferior kind of Greek. If the New Testament was translated from the original language, Hebrew, into Greek and Aramaic, which would make the idioms within the Hebrew language meaningless, it would make the writers seem uneducated, and that is what has happened. Many people are ignorant of the fact that the early Christian church was of wholly Jewish origin and God entrusted only the Jews with His oracles (Romans 3:2). The sovereignty of the Gospel message was never left to any other nation – nor was it left to another nation’s language. The Lord never dealt with any other nation – so it is not logical He would allow the Jewish salvation message to be preached – initially – in any other than the Hebrew language. We need to notice one important fact: The Lord never once, throughout the whole Bible, used an interpreter when He was speaking to His people, the Jews. God Himself, always spoke to the Jews in Hebrew. The Jews then interpreted God’s divine will to Gentiles. The same applies with the Gospel. Jesus, Who is God and Who is Jewish, gave us the Gospel in Hebrew, then the Jews translated God’s divine will of the Gospel message to the Gentiles. We need to remember God’s principle: Always to the Jew first – then to the Gentile; the Jewish language first, then to Gentile languages.

 

[Sapper Woody]

A lot of so called Christians think that their bible was written by some blue eyed Greman some where in 1559 AD>> for them ! and its for America, Canadfa , England and so on!!! NOTat all my friend!! .

The only people who believe anything close to that are the Ruckmanites. And even they don't believe that actually. They just believe that the translation into the KJV was as inspired as the originals.

So, not sure who your target audience is.

Sent from my Pixel using Tapatalk

 

[liafailrock]

I think most people on Christian forums (barring a troll) know all about the OP's point. However, it is a valid point, and one that should be taken by those less knowledgeable. Even at that, I think the Jewishness of the bible has been removed even by knowledgeable people. The idea is the Jews rejected Messiah and thus the Gentiles took the central stage, thus "replacement theology". I found the more I study the bible, the more toward Judaic doctrines I have except.... I see Jesus as the Messiah who came the first time. Those who miss this time will catch him on the second time around LOL. Some of my beliefs and mannerisms have gravitated toward Jewish ways that I had one Christian ask me if I converted to Judaism. I have even been studying Hebrew and can read and write Hebrew words. Albeit I read and write perhaps like a 6-year-old. Oh well, the Lord's child, I guess.

 

[TCassidy]

A lot of so called Christians think that their bible was written by some blue eyed Greman some where in 1559 A

Who? Name them.

 

[annsni]

And where is the evidence that the New Testament was written in Hebrew?

 

[TCassidy]

And where is the evidence that the New Testament was written in Hebrew?

It wasn't. Rant is mistaken. Portions of the NT may have been written in Aramaic, but were inspired in Greek. The one book most often said to have been originally written in Aramaic is Matthew, but a close, critical examination of Matthew's Greek "reveals none of the telltale marks of a translation" according to Geoffrey W, Bromiley, editor, International Standard Bible Encyclopedia published by Wm B Eerdmans Co., page 571. Dr. Bromiley was Professor of Church History and Historical Theology at Fuller Theological Seminary from 1958 until his retirement in 1987.

 

[BobRyan]

The Lord never dealt with any other nation – so it is not logical He would allow the Jewish salvation message to be preached – initially – in any other than the Hebrew language. We need to notice one important fact: The Lord never once, throughout the whole Bible, used an interpreter when He was speaking to His people, the Jews. God Himself, always spoke to the Jews in Hebrew. The Jews then interpreted God’s divine will to Gentiles. The same applies with the Gospel. Jesus, Who is God and Who is Jewish, gave us the Gospel in Hebrew, then the Jews translated God’s divine will of the Gospel message to the Gentiles. We need to remember God’s principle: Always to the Jew first – then to the Gentile; the Jewish language first, then to Gentile languages.

That would have been "more interesting" if you actually had a Hebrew NT text that was older than the Greek texts.

 

[rsr]

A lot of so called Christians think that their bible was written by some blue eyed Greman some where in 1559 AD>> for them ! and its for America, Canadfa , England and so on!!! NOTat all my friend!!

I doubt that is true at all. Anyone who has done even a cursory study knows it is not true. It may be that many Christians don't know a lick about the original languages, but I doubt they think some Aryan in the 16th century wrote the Bible.

The whole Bible was written by Jewish people in the ancient language of Hebrew.

Not entirely. Chunks of Daniel and Ezra apparently were written in Aramaic. Close to Hebrew, but not the same. And there is precious little evidence that the New Testament is anything but Greek.

Jesus and His disciples all spoke Hebrew and lived within the Jewish culture.

Hard to prove that. Aramaic was the common language of Palestine, but it was a very diverse place linguistically. Hebrew was a liturgical language, not the language of everyday speech. Many Jews could read it and understand it in synagogue, but it's an open question as to how many could speak it fluently.

Paul’s original letters were written in Hebrew.

No evidence for this, and it flies in the face of reason. Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles, whose common language was Greek. He appears to have been a Hellenized Jew from a "Greek" city who was conversant in several languages and wrote to Gentile believers in a language they could understand.

Why it is assumed Jesus spoke Greek, is because the Bible was translated into Greek for the new Greek-speaking Christian converts, and the translations were adopted and used about 300 AD, instead of the original Hebrew Gospel.

I don't think a belief that Jesus spoke Greek is commonplace. However, it would not be surprising if he did. The Galilee was a fairly Hellenized place in some spots. Sepphoris was a Greek city an hour's walk from Nazareth; if Jesus were a tekton, or builder, he likely would have commuted to Sepphoris for work since it's unlikely tiny Nazareth could supply enough work to keep him busy.

People believe the New Testament was written in uneducated (Koine) Greek, which is an inferior kind of Greek.

Koine was not an "inferior" kind of Greek. Yes, it was not Classical or Homeric Greek and was simpler than its predecessors, but it was not "pidgin" Greek. It had its own rules of grammar and vocabulary It was suited to its purpose: to disseminate information as widely as possible.

To claim that Koine was "inferior" is to claim that Spanish or Italian or French are "inferior" to Classical Latin or that contemporary English is "inferior" to Elizabethan English or American English is "inferior" to British English.

Now, I don't think contemporary English can produce the poetry of the Elizabethan-Jacobean age, but I'm pretty sure it's better at telling you how to set up a computer or get from London to Boston or bake a cake.

If you doubt that, read an English essay from a contemporary journal and one from 300 years ago, or even a newspaper story from 100 years ago. Contemporary English is, in the hands of a decent writer, sparser, more to the point and more helpful than it was earlier.

In fact, some believe that if the New Testament were to be written today, it would be in English, and probably American English.

Many people are ignorant of the fact that the early Christian church was of wholly Jewish origin ...

Depends on what you mean by "early." Certainly the vast majority of the first believers were Jewish, but if you read Acts and Paul's letters you will see that the Gentiles were becoming an increasingly important part of Christianity.

Paul repeats an ethnic slur against the Cretans and visits the Areopagus. The first demonstrates his familiarity with Greek culture; the second shows that he is not bound by traditional Jewish norms. Can you imagine an observant Pharisee or Sadducee strolling through the heart of Greek paganism and not rending his garments and wailing?

The sovereignty of the Gospel message was never left to any other nation – nor was it left to another nation’s language. The Lord never dealt with any other nation – so it is not logical He would allow the Jewish salvation message to be preached – initially – in any other than the Hebrew language.

There is nothing logical about your complaint. On the day of Pentecost the Gospel was preached in languages that were not Hebrew or Aramaic.

We need to notice one important fact: The Lord never once, throughout the whole Bible, used an interpreter when He was speaking to His people, the Jews. God Himself, always spoke to the Jews in Hebrew. [/quote

This is not subject to proof. When God spoke to Moses, was it in Hebrew (which would have been a second language to Moses, since he was brought up as an Egyptian)? When Moses went to pharaoh, he seems to have spoken Egyptian, unless Aaron was bilingual and would have spoken to pharaoh in Egyptian.

You seem to want to make Hebrew a "holy language," just as the Latin Rite folks wanted to make Latin a "holy language" and the Orthodox consider Greek a "holy language." God has used humans to his glory and has used the materials at hand to make his will known to his glory and to serve his purposes.

 

[utilyan]

"For then I will give to the people a pure language from pure lips that they may call upon the name of the Lord, to serve Him with one voice’."

Assuming God spoke Hebrew and prior to this statement Hebrew was spoken, what is the pure language he will give to his people? It can't be Hebrew else he would have said I already gave you a pure language.

In other words if that statement was made in Spanish that would make a little more sense.