How can one have a Bibilical defense for a political translation?
King James, a most ungodly man (he encouraged his daughters to dissolute lives so they would not marry and create possible succession problems, and he had a preference for teenaged boys) objected to the calvinistic footnotes in the Geneva Bible, so he gathered Puritans and others together to come up with a compromise translation. The KJV was not initially accepted by the Puritans (the evangelical wing of English Christians at the time). In fact, Bunyan, et. al., were still using the Geneva in the 1680s
Also, since the "original" KJV contained the Apocrypha, I wait with interest for a Biblical defense of that.