Dave G
Well-Known Member
I don't deal on implication.The implication in the Greek is, that, μὴ ἀπόληται, which is aorist middle subjunctive, that some will perish, which is linked to their lack of faith in Jesus Christ, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν, which is in the present, continuance tense.
I like it when God's word declares something.
For example, Christ point-blank tells me He won't lose any of His sheep:
" And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day." ( John 6:39 ).
Again, "should not " / "should" = past tense form of "shall not" and "shall".
Here I see that God the Father told Jesus that He shall lose none, at some point in the past...most probably in context with 1 Peter 1:20.
He already knew His Father's will on the matter.
In the Greek ( nice to look at, but if the translators did a faithful job with the Greek, then the English is all I need ), it's rendered into English as, " No I-should-be-destroying" or " nothing I-should-be-losing" / "none I-should-lose of it".
https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/joh6.pdf
John 6 Interlinear Bible
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