Without the intervening work of God yes, he could have made other choices.
So, you are saying he could have done otherwise? You are affirming LFW? Your answers are about as clear as that congressman's responses on Glenn Beck's show the other night.
Prove that God intervenes only in "unique" circumstances. Significant events are made of of smaller events that if just one is changed it can effect the entire course of history. We could spend hours thinking of small seemingly insignificant events that had they been different niether Moses or Pharoah would have been in the place they were in.
Yes, and God is sovereign enough to bring about his ultimate purposes regardless of what all those small events are. He is powerful enough to bring about his redemptive plan without having to cause sin or impugn his holiness in any way.
Think about this, if every choice is controlled by God in the way you suggest then what is the purpose in scripture pointing out these divine interventions of God as if they were something unique?
For example, if God inspired every word ever written then what would be the uniqueness of scripture? If every thought or deed is equally controlled by God then what is the uniqueness of good ones versus sinful ones? If God is the only person making any determinations then how do you distinguish good choices from bad ones?
I have no idea but God does. You evidently believe it served no purpose.
You say God allows sinful acts but for what purpose? Or is there no purpose in your view?
Oh, the purposes are probably the same for you as for me. It's the idea that the thought itself was somehow arranged by God in such a way that it could have not been otherwise that I object to. I don't object to the idea that He doesn't prevent the sin for a purpose.
You think not, but what is your proof? God has no purpose in our lives to do such things?
What is my proof that God doesn't causally determine every sinful act? Well, James teaches us that God is not even a tempter of evil, much less the ultimate determinative cause of the temptation and the sin itself.
God is HOLY...without sin. Sinful choices frustrate Him and anger him. It makes little since for God to cause that which he doesn't desire, or that which goes against his very nature.
The acts of judicial blinding in scripture are not examples of God making a man sin or even have the motive of sin. They are merely example of God hiding the truth from people temporarily so that they won't be convinced to do change their current course of action. A police officer might hide himself behind a bush so that you continue to speed, but that doesn't make him the cause of your crime. He simply hid the truth of His presence from you so that you would continue to do what you chose to do in the first place.
Does God not also direct evil men to do more evil than even they wish to do so as to accomplish His will?
You'll have to give me a specific reference for me to address that one. I'm not sure what you mean by "direct evil men to do more evil." Kind of sounds like what Paul was talking about when he said,
"Why not say--as we are being slanderously reported as saying and as some claim that we say--"Let us do evil that good may result"? Their condemnation is deserved."
#2 is the red herring, I do not believe God is the author of the evil thought. However we do find God sending evil spirits to Saul to influence him.
Let's look at your some of the misapplied proof texts:
Judges 9:22 After Abimelech had governed Israel three years, 23 God sent an evil spirit between Abimelech and the citizens of Shechem, who acted treacherously against Abimelech.
God permitted, or gave a commission to Satan, the evil spirit, to go among them (as He did with Job) and sow the seeds of discord and contention among them; or God gave them up to their own hearts' lusts (like in Romans 1), to think ill of one another, grow jealous, and meditate revenge. Why? Because it pleased God for them to sin and do evil? No. God did this in order that the crime might be avenged on their brother Abimelech and on the citizens of Shechem, who had helped him murder his brothers. In other words, God did this to enact justice. (John Gill, a Calvinistic theologian, even supports this understanding)
The other texts are more of the same...none of them bring reproach upon the nature of God by suggesting that He in any way causes all sin or evil.
Man freely sins in both circumstances
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Well, that depends on how you answer the first question. I define "freely" as having been able to do otherwise. If I lied to my wife yesterday at noon, I believe that all things being equal I could have willingly done otherwise. There was NOTHING preventing me from being able to not lie to my wife. That is Libertarian Free Will (LFW). That is what I mean when I say "freely." What do you mean?
Would the Jews have crucified Jesus without the event being the predetermined purpose of God?
This is like Pharaoh. God blinded the people (Jews) from the clear truth for a time so that they would not repent and believe. (Mk 4; John 12:39-41; Rm 11 etc). Like the police car that hid, God hid the truth of the gospel from the Jews so that they would crucify Him for blasphemy. In other words, they were hardened...otherwise they might see with their eyes, hear with their ears, understand with their hearts and turn, and God would heal them.
They weren't born that way, they became like that after being hardened. And the Gentiles weren't being hardened. They will listen to the gospel.
