Can a KJVO explain this anglican influence in the KJV?

[Pastor_Bob]

Originally posted by Daniel David:
This is another evidence of ANGLICAN influence. I still cannot for the life of me understand why BAPTISTS use this version.

So, do I understand you to say that these two examples are enough to qualify the KJV as an "Anglican Bible?"

And, do the fact that the MV's translate these two verses the way you prefer make them free of Anglican influence?

As I recall, Dr.s Westcott & Hort were very much influenced by the Anglican church.

 

[Daniel David]

These are just two verses that demonstrate the anglican influence upon the text. You have said yourself that it is the scholarship that matters.

I would agree that the majority of the version does not project their anglicanism.

This is also a double standard on th epart of some KJVOs. Timothy1769 on this board constantly criticized the NASB (even though he apparently didn't understand the theological significance) for doing the exact same thing.

 

[Daniel David]

This should be bumped as KJVOs clearly missed it the first time.

 

[LRL71]

Originally posted by Pastor_Bob:

As I recall, Dr.s Westcott & Hort were very much influenced by the Anglican church.

Uh, from what I recall, Dr. Westcott & Dr. Hort did not translate an English version, but merely put together a Greek NT text. Compiling Greek texts is not affected by 'Anglican' influences.