SaggyWoman
Active Member
Yes or no? Why?
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Yes or no? Why?
what she saidNo, because if God changes his mind, it would mean one of the following:
God's plan was not perfect to begin with so he had to change it
God is not omniscient/does not know the future
God makes mistakes
Having to change one's mind only comes from imperfect knowledge or from making mistakes or not being sure one is right
That sounds nice, but when a sovereign God says He's going to do x, man prays asking God to not do x, and God does not do x (all sovereignly), He is in fact changing His will or He would either be lying in His declaration of doing x initially.When we humans repent (or relent) we change our will.
When God repents he wills a change.
You are starting with the false presupposition that changing one's mind is defined humanly by having imperfect knowledge. Many accounts in the Bible of God doing just that while remaining omniscient...finite beings cannot understand how it can be the case, but I think it is pretty presumptuous to claim God can or cannot do something due to our understanding.No, because if God changes his mind, it would mean one of the following:
God's plan was not perfect to begin with so he had to change it
God is not omniscient/does not know the future
God makes mistakes
Having to change one's mind only comes from imperfect knowledge or from making mistakes or not being sure one is right
"Malachi 3:6 declares, “I the LORD do not change. So you, O descendants of Jacob, are not destroyed.” Similarly, James 1:17 tells us, “Every good and perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of the heavenly lights, who does not change like shifting shadows.” The meaning of Numbers 23:19 could not be more clear: “God is not a man, that He should lie, nor a son of man, that He should change His mind. Does He speak and then not act? Does He promise and not fulfill?” No, God does not change His mind. These verses assert that God is unchanging and unchangeable."
I think both passages are referring to God not changing His mind the way a man does, i.e. based on emotion, feelings, incomplete knowledge, due to the flesh. We can even see God changing His mind in v. 7 in Malachi 3 (..."return to Me, and I will return to you")Webdog,
I tend to agree with you on this point because apparently God doesn't have a problem with scripture revealing his willingness to change. In the passages where there is an apparent divine change we don't find any type of "qualification" explaining that it is just "anthropomorphic" language. We simply find a narrative where God appears to change.
If nothing else, God doesn't have a problem with us thinking of him in these "anthropomorphic" terms, right?
However, we must take in the whole counsel of God so I wondered how you interpret the verses that Packer referred to:
I think of these as meaning God's ultimate sovereign will does not change. His nature does not change. He will accomplish His purposes even in the midst of "changes, disappointments, disobedience, relenting" etc. He is not like man, he is transcendent, but this doesn't negate his immanence. We cannot fully understand his ways (Rm 11), so we shouldn't attempt to explain away the clear revelation of God in scripture by having one attribute of God negate another.
I think both passages are referring to God not changing His mind the way a man does, i.e. based on emotion, feelings, incomplete knowledge, due to the flesh. We can even see God changing His mind in v. 7 in Malachi 3 (..."return to Me, and I will return to you")
You are starting with the false presupposition that changing one's mind is defined humanly by having imperfect knowledge. Many accounts in the Bible of God doing just that while remaining omniscient...finite beings cannot understand how it can be the case, but I think it is pretty presumptuous to claim God can or cannot do something due to our understanding.
Gen. 6:6-7 -- This (along with another, 1 Sam 15:11, regarding God "repenting" over the choice of Saul) is the primary hinge point of the Skeptical argument alleging contradiction. But let's look at that word "repent" more closely. It is nacham, and it means to be sorry, grieve, or to pity.
[*]Now here is a question: Is it not possible to grieve and feel sorry over something -- even if we know that it is going to happen, even if we cause it to happen? Of course it is. And there is no reason why this cannot also apply to God, as we shall see.
[*]Gen. 18:23-33. We won't quote this passage in entirety; suffice to say: It is the incident in which Abraham intercedes with God on behalf of Sodom, asking Him to spare the city in a classic ANE "marketplace bartering" conversation which probably served to give Abraham some idea what this new God of "his" was like. Did God here offer to change His mind? Let's put it this way. The story, and Jeremiah above, indicates that with intercession and/or change, God will make a change in an announced plan. But if God is omniscient, then He knew in advance what Abraham would ask for -- and knew also what the end result would be. (Note that God asks, clearly rhetorically [18:17], whether He should tell Abraham what His plans are, and that the number of possible righteous goes only to 10 -- the next logical increment, 5, would have been less than the number of Lot's family of 6: Lot, his wife, his two daughters, and their prospective grooms. In essence Abraham is pleading for Lot's safety here.) <MORE>
http://www.provethebible.net/T2-Objec/G2-004.htm[FONT=Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]People of Israel had begun worshipping an idol in violation of what God had instructed. What is the penalty for sin? It's death as proscribed by God's characteristic of being just and promising sin will be punished. But after God said they would be destroyed, Moses interceded and pleaded on behalf of his people. So what is the fruit of penitence and humility? It's mercy as proscribed by God's characteristic of showing mercy to the penitent. Thus like swerving a car back onto the road that had been headed for a cliff, Moses changed the direction in which the Israelites had been headed. [/FONT]
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[FONT=Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]...If I'm an unbeliever, God promises to cast me away. Upon my repentance, God promises to save me. It's not that God is one minute just, and the next minute merciful. He is always both. It's only my relationship to him that determines the "change". God's judgment of my action in this case is conditional upon my action. The change is in me.[/FONT]
Marcia you are correct. GOD does not changes HIS mind. If HE did that would indicate that HE did not know all things. Just because we fail to fully understand some Scripture has nothing to do with the nature of GOD.
Yes, He does "change His mind". There are many Scriptures showing just that (account of Hezekiah one of the biggest). He doesn't change His mind as man does, but there is a mystery we cannot understand in regards to how God deals with man within the confines of time and how He acts / reacts as such. We can try to philosophize it away, but there is a tension in Scripture that exists. If He didn't change His mind, the prayer of the righteous would mean zilch
Let's look at Hezekiah. God told him flat out "get your house in order, you are not going to live". Was God omniscient at that point? Hezekiah fell on his face in prayer. Was God omniscient at that point? God told Hezekiah "I heard your prayer and you will live 15 more years". Was God omniscient at that point? If you answered "yes" to all three, your theory crumbles. Was God kidding Hezekiah when He told him initially he was not going to live, or even worse, did He lie to him? It would have to be the case using your understanding.I think that we have to conclude that God is not perfect if he changes his mind; there is just no other conclusion to come to. It means either he does not know the future or has to change from one plan to another.
If God knows the future, then why would he change in response to someone's prayer? Has God made a mistake or has God not known the person would pray for something? God knew the person would pray for x before it happened, so how could God change his mind in response to this prayer?
Open Theists use the same scriptures some here are quoting to prove that God changes his mind; from this they have concluded that God knows only the future that can be known. However, quite a few book and articles have been written refuting the arguments using these scriptures to try to claim that God changes His mind.
Let's look at Hezekiah. God told him flat out "get your house in order, you are not going to live". Was God omniscient at that point? Hezekiah fell on his face in prayer. Was God omniscient at that point? God told Hezekiah "I heard your prayer and you will live 15 more years". Was God omniscient at that point? If you answered "yes" to all three, your theory crumbles. Was God kidding Hezekiah when He told him initially he was not going to live, or even worse, did He lie to him? It would have to be the case using your understanding.