He wrote in Koine Greek, but his style and how he wrote it was almost like classical greek, as was very refined!what makes you think that Luke wrote in Classical Greek?
Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
He wrote in Koine Greek, but his style and how he wrote it was almost like classical greek, as was very refined!what makes you think that Luke wrote in Classical Greek?
He wrote in Koine Greek, but his style and how he wrote it was almost like classical greek, as was very refined!
AgreedLuke was Greek Gentile and not Jewish!
Again, I understand what verbal inspiration means. And I understand this is the position you hold. Like I said, my position is more akin to Martin Luther (I believe God communicated His words to men who expressed those words in their terms to communicate to their immediate audience, even when they did not understand all that they were given).The Holy Spirit did Verbal Plenary Inspiration, down to the very word chosen by the writers!
Your view point on Scripture seems flawed to me.Your viewpoint on biblical inspiration seems to be flawed!
Both in regards to the Originals and to Translations themselves
I believe God communicated His words to men who expressed those words in their terms to communicate to their immediate audience, even when they did not understand all that they were given
No. You have hinted at Martin Luther's statements regarding the human aspect but dropped the ball a bit..so the Original Bible did is not THE Word of God, but CONTAINS His word? This is like the NIV, NLT, CEV, GNB etc, which are "thought for thought" translations. But, when these are compared to the actual Hebrew and Greek, and the more "literal" translations, they are often way off the mark! What you are saying can mean that God told the writers one thing, and then they wrote it the best they THOUGHT it should read, like even paraphrasing the actual Words of God? Have I understood you clear on this?
but not necessarily by dictation.
I have no objections to it being done that way. I just do not believe it was done that way.any reason why not? What objections do you have to this way?
I have no objections to it being done that way. I just do not believe it was done that way.
Why do you believe otherwise (that God dictated the words of Scripture)?
Paul appealed to the very word of the seed and not seeds of Abraham concerning Christ, how much more verbal plenary can it get?Again, I understand what verbal inspiration means. And I understand this is the position you hold. Like I said, my position is more akin to Martin Luther (I believe God communicated His words to men who expressed those words in their terms to communicate to their immediate audience, even when they did not understand all that they were given).
I am not saying your position is unorthodox or even unpopular. I am saying it is a position I do not hold.
And I am saying it would make for an interesting thread, but there is no need to hijack this one (I think we both know you will just keep saying your view is correct but will never defend it).
This makes absolutely no sense.Paul appealed to the very word of the seed and not seeds of Abraham concerning Christ, how much more verbal plenary can it get?
Jesus Himself stated that the OT was inspired to every jot and tittle, why would not the NT be such also?This makes absolutely no sense.
We are not arguing whether or not Scripture is accurate but how it is inspired. Did God say "seed" (singular) or did God communicate "descendant (singular)? Either way Paul could reference the passage.
It is. Exactly the same. And like us the time of Jesus was absent the original autographs of the OT.Jesus Himself stated that the OT was inspired to every jot and tittle, why would not the NT be such also?
Jesus knew that the OT was verbal Plenary inspired and that the NT would now be also!It is. Exactly the same. And like us the time of Jesus was absent the original autographs of the OT.
Now you are making stuff up. This is the same as taking God's name in vain and you should be ashamed of yourself.Jesus knew that the OT was verbal Plenary inspired and that the NT would now be also!
Exactly. If that verse applies only to Scripture that no longer exists then we not only cannot have confidence in the Scripture we have but the Scripture we have is wrong (the original Scripture was not around when Paul wrote those words).Brethren in answer to the OP... If I can't trust the Holy Bible today, I want to be sure to be buried in a asbestos suit and have full coverage of fire insurance... I believe it!... Read it!... Brother Glen
2 Timothy 3:16 ALL SCRIPTURE IS GIVEN BY THE INSPIRATION OF GOD, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

true, that refers to the Originals themselves!Brethren in answer to the OP... If I can't trust the Holy Bible today, I want to be sure to be buried in a asbestos suit and have full coverage of fire insurance... I believe it!... Read it!... Brother Glen
2 Timothy 3:16 ALL SCRIPTURE IS GIVEN BY THE INSPIRATION OF GOD, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.