Please back at you. If the Bible were all that clear we would not be having this debate, or hardly any other debate about what it means. I'm still waiting for you to produce the Chapter and verse that say absolutely Mary had other children.
Why would "cousins" be mentioned so often with Mary and Joseph as though they did not have any mother and father?
Surely, if you had no axe to grind and simply read the many scriptures already referenced you would naturally conclude she and Joseph had many other children after Christ.
Where in scripture can you find even one text that teaches she was a perpetual virgin? Where in the scripture can you find even one scripture that says she did not have any other children?
Doesn't it seem awful strange that this position by Rome has no biblical evidence whatsoever and yet there are many scriptures that if simply taken at face value over and over again demonstrate the very opposite?
You talk about bias! When you reject 9 scriptures that if read at face value claim she did to 0 that claims she didn't - isn't that what we call "bias" and very strong bias without one shred of evidence?