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Hey, this is me, PeterMeansRock...
They already suspended my account for asking too many questions so I've assumed a new name...I'll attempt to answer these questions later...
They already suspended my account for asking too many questions so I've assumed a new name...I'll attempt to answer these questions later...
Indeed. She merely says "this is permissable and perhaps laudable, so long as you're doing it properly" (i.e. not practicing necromancy, as cited above)!The Catholic Church doesn’t require or make a person ask a Saint to pray for them. It’s up to the individual.
...In the Catholic Catechism which is posted on www.vatican.va, I see the following two notations (copied below) #'s 1367 and 1368. They seem to say that Christ is still being sacrificed, although in a different (unbloody) manner, and that Catholics are joining Him also in a sacrifice of their works, praise, prayers, etc.
This right here is saying precisely that Christ was sacrificed ONCE and for all, not resacreficed over and over. He is the once-for-all sacrifice; and the eucharist is that exact same sacrifice re-presented (not represented) presently.1367 The sacrifice of Christ and the sacrifice of the Eucharist are one single sacrifice: "The victim is one and the same: the same now offers through the ministry of priests, who then offered himself on the cross; only the manner of offering is different."
Indeed he said "do this in rememberance of me"...it is a participation in his body and blood by the church, by his own words. I fail to understand your objection here.1368 The Eucharist is also the sacrifice of the Church. The Church which is the Body of Christ participates in the offering of her Head.
After John 6:54 the disciples tell Jesus that this is a hard saying and who can hear it? He is clear in John 6:63 that the flesh profiteth nothing and the words he spoke are spirit and life.Here we have "flesh" used in two different terms. The "flesh" as in the understandings of men profit us naught. But the flesh and blood of the god-man are our food.
Notice the Jews in John 6 first understand him to be speaking metaphorically, but he continues on until they understand him to be very literal, saying "how can this man give us his FLESH to eat?!"
Notice then that Christ does not correct them. It wasn't a metaphor. Earlier he made a metaphor about the "leaven of the pharaisee's", which his diciples misunderstood - and he corrected them. Why no correction here? Why allow them to leaven him grumbling "this is a hard saying, who can hear it?" Because this was a very importaint matter of doctrine.
Jesus wasn't telling them to metaphorically break the levitical law, but to actually consume his blood and flesh. "For the life of the flesh is in the blood" (lev 17). His LIFE is good for us!
No Problemo. Thank you for asking!Again, thanks for responding.
Indeed...Spirit does NOT mean "symbolic"